UPSC Prelims 2018 Question Paper and Key

1.) Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823 3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

Subject: Modern India History
Topic: India under East India Company's rule: British expansion policy

 2.) Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

a) Kodaikanal (Tamil  Nadu)

b) Kolleru (Andhra  Pradesh)

c) Nainital (Utrarakhand)

d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh) 

Ans: a

Subject: Geography
Topic: Indian Rivers and Water Resources

3.) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: 

1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

Subject: Polity
Topic: Government Policies and Schemes

4.) In 1920,  which  of  the  following  changed  its  name  to  “Swarajya Sabha”?

a) All India  Home  Rule  League

b) Hindu  Mahasabha

c) South Indian Liberal Federation

d) The Servants of India Society 

Ans: a

Subject: Modern India History
Topic: India under East India Company's rule: Political Policies

5.) Which among the following events happened earliest?

a) Swami Dayanand  established  Arya  Samaj.

b) DinabandhuMitra wrote  Neeldarpan.

c) Bankim Chandra  Chattopadhyay  wrote  Anandmath.

d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first India to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.

Ans: b

Subject: Modern India History
Topic: India under East India Company's rule: Social Policies

6.) Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

1. Decreased salinity in the river 
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water­table

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Subject: Geography
Topic: Ecology and Environment

7.) With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:

1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity. 
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Subject: Geography
Topic: Bio-geography: Soils

8.) The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg

b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro

c) The United  Nations  Framework  Convention  on  Climate  Change  2015,  Paris

d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi 

Ans: b

Subject: IR
Topic: Environmental Policies Acts Conventions

9.) “3D printing”  has  applications  in  which  of  the  following?

1. Preparation of confectionery items 
2. Manufacture of bionic ears
3. Automotive industry
4. Reconstructive surgeries
5. Data processing technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 3 and 4 only

b) 2, 3 and 5 only

c) 1 and 4 only 

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: d

Subject: Science
Topic: Science Technology and Inventions

10.) Consider the following statements:

1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian Territory. 
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 3 only

d) 1 and 3

 Ans: a

Subject: Geography
Topic: Physiographic Division of India

11.) Why is a called Prosopisjulifloru often mentioned is news?

a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.

b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

c) Its extracts is used in the synthesis of pesticides.

d) None of the above 

Ans: b

Subject: Biology
Topic: Botany: Plant Kingdom

12.) Consider the following statements

1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3 

Ans: d

Subject: Geography
Topic: Ecology and Environment

13.) “Momentum for change : climate neutral now” is an initiative launched by

a) The intergovernmental panel on climate change

b) The UNEP secretariat

c) The UNFCCC  secretariat

d) The world meteorological organization

Ans: c

Subject: IR
Topic: Environmental Acts Policies Conventions

14.) With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:

Institution Founder

1. Sanskrit college at Banaras William Jones

2. Calcutta   Madarsa Warren Hastings

3. Fort William college Arthur Wellesley 

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Ans: b

Subject: Modern India History
Topic: India under East India Company's rule: Administration

15.) Consider the following pairs :

Region sometimes mentioned in news

1.    Catalonia ­Spain

2. Crimea ­ Hungary

3. Mindanao ­Philippines

4. Oromia ­Nigeria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 and 4 only 

Ans: c

Subject: Geography
Topic: World-Geography: International Boundaries and Landlocked Countries

16.) Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases.

b) The money which a creditors is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims.

c) The bank money in the forms of cheque, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.

d) The metallic money in circulation in a country. 

Ans: b

Subject: Economy
Topic: Money and Banking

17.) If a commodity is provided free to the public by the government, then

a) The opportunity cost is zero.

b) The opportunity cost is ignored.

c) The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the  tax­ paying public.

d) The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the government. 

Ans: d

Subject: Economy
Topic: Microeconomics

18.) Increase in absolute and per capital real GNP do not connote a higher level of economics development, if

a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agriculture output.

b) Agriculture output fails to keep pace with industrial output.

c) Poverty and unemployment increase.

d) Imports grow faster than exports. 

Ans: c

Subject: Economy
Topic: Money and Banking: Monetary Tools and Policies

19.) Consider the following statements.

Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables.

a) Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.

b) Increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.

c) Accumulation of  tangible  wealth.

d) Accumulation of  intangible  wealth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 4

d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans: c

Subject: Economy
Topic: Human Development Indices and Concepts

20.) Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

a) Weak administrative machinery

b) Illiteracy

c) High population  density

d) High capital output ratio

 Ans: d

Subject: Economy
Topic: Money and Banking: Monetary Tools and Policies

21.) After the Santhal uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?

1. The territories called ‘santhalparaganas were created.
2. It became illegal for a santhal to transfer land to a non­santhal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

Subject: Modern India History
Topic: Tribal Movements

22.) Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India on the 19th century was the

a) Increase in the export of Indian handicrafts

b) Growth in the number of Indian owned factories.

c) Commercialization of  Indian  agriculture.

d) Rapid increase in the urban population 

Ans: c

Subject: Modern India History
Topic: India under East India Company's rule: British Expansion Policy

23.) If the president of India exercise his power as provided under article 356 of the constitutional in respect of a particular state, then

a) The assemble of the state is automatically dissolved.

b) The powers of the legislature of that state shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the parliament.

c) Article 19 is suspended in that state.

d) The president can make laws relating to that state. 

Ans: d

Subject: Polity
Topic: Central Government: Parliament

24.) Consider the following pairs:

Crafts Heritage of

1. Puthukkuli  shawls Tamil Nadu

2. Sujni embroidery Maharashtra 

3.   Uppadajamdani saris Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2

c) 3 only

d) 2 and 3

Ans: a

Subject: Art and Culture
Topic: Period of Transition

25.)  In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used? 

1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids

Select of the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Ans: d

Subject: Science
Topic: Science Technology and Inventions

26.) Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2and 3

Ans: c

Subject: Economy
Topic: Money and Banking

27.) Consider the following statements:

1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

Which of the statements  given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

Subject: Geography
Topic: Origin and Evolution of Universe Solar System: Geological History of Earth

28.) The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

a) Exoplanets

b) Cryptocurrency

c) Cyber attacks

d) Mini satellites 

Ans: c

Subject: Science
Topic: Science and Technology

29.) With reference to the circumstances in India agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

1. Avoiding the  monoculture  practices 
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the  cultivation  of plantation  crops 
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and  temporal crop  sequencing/crop  rotations 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 3 and 4

b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

c) 2, 4 and 5

d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Ans: c

Subject: Geography
Topic: Agriculture: Sustainable Agriculture

30.) The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large­scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.

b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.

c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.

d) Mankind’s over­exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

Ans: d

Subject: Geography
Topic: Ecology and Environment

31.) Consider the following events:

1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State  in India.
2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank  of India’,  was  renamed  ‘State Bank  of  India’. 
3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
4. Goa  became  a  part of independent  India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? 

a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

b)   3 – 2 – 1 – 4

c)   4 – 2 – 1 – 3

d)   3 – 1 – 2 – 4

Ans: b

Subject: Polity
Topic: Post Independence Events

32.) Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right  to  Life  and  Personal  Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statements?

a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV

c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the  Constitution

Ans: c

Subject: Polity
Topic: Basics of Constitution: Fundamental Rights

33.) Consider the following: 

1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric 

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only

b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

d) 1,2,3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Ans: b

Subject: Economy
Topic: Agriculture: MSP and Agriculture Reforms

34.) In which one of the following State Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary is located?

a) Arunachal Pradesh

b) Manipur

c) Meghalaya

d) Nagaland 

Ans: a

Subject: Geography
Topic: Mapping

35.) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location  on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four­staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 2

d) 3 only

Ans: a

Subject: Science
Topic: Science Technology and Inventions

36.) With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:

1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: b

Subject: Economy
Topic: Money and Banking

37.) Consider the following items: 

1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Ans: c

Subject: Economy
Topic: Initiatives by Government: Economic Reforms since 1991

38.) Consider the following statements:

1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest  Rights  Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: a

Subject: Environment
Topic: Environmental Acts Policies Conventions

39.) Consider the following: 

1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Ans: d

Subject: Environment
Topic: Botany: Plant Diseases

40.) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

1. ‘The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Subject: Economy
Topic: Government Policies and Schemes

41.) Consider the following statements:

1. In the first LokSabha, the single largest party in the opposition  was  the  Swatantra Party.
2. In the LokSabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for  the  first  time  in 1969.
3. In the LokSabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Subject: Polity
Topic: Central Government: Parliament

42.) Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss? 

1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

Subject: Environment
Topic: Botany: Plant Kingdom

43.) As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements:

1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

Subject: Economy
Topic: Indexes and Reports

44.) How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution  Control Board (CPCB)?

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps  reduce the  burden  of litigation  in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams  and wells,  and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: b

Subject: Environment
Topic: Other Dimensions: Tribunals

45.) Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitutions of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be  made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: a

Subject: Polity
Topic: Basics of Constitution: Important Schedules

46.) Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news?

a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting  payments  through  debit cards pertaining to that bank.

b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.

c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.

d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

Ans: c

Subject: Economy
Topic: Business and Economics

47.) What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Groups’?

1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non­Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: a

Subject: IR
Topic: World Organisations and Headquarters

48.) With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non­resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non­resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: d

Subject: Economy
Topic: Money and Banking: Government Budgeting and Fiscal Policy

49.) Consider the following statements:

1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2.  The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

Subject: Economy
Topic: Money and Banking: Government Budgeting and Fiscal Policy

50.) Consider the following statements:

1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

Subject: Economy
Topic: External sectors and currency exchange rates: Trade Policies

51.) He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

a) Aurobindo Ghosh

b) Bipin Chandra  Pal

c) LalaLajpatRai

d) Motilal Nehru 

Ans: c

Subject: Modern India History
Topic: National Movement( 1885-1919) : Great Personalities

52.) Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile. 
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: d

Subject: Polity
Topic: Basics of Constitution: Important Acts

53.) Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?

1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 2 only

d) 1 and 3

Ans: d

Subject: Geography
Topic: Mapping: Seas Mountains Straits Rivers

54.) “Rule of Law  Index”  is  released  by  which  of  the  following?

a) Amnesty International

b) International Court of Justice

c) The office  of  UN Commissioner  for  Human  Rights

d) World Justice Project 

Ans: d

Subject: IR
Topic: Indexes and Reports

55.) Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

a) Indian Banks’  Association

b) National Securities Depository Limited

c) National Payments  Corporation  of  India

d) Reserve Bank of India 

Ans: c

Subject: Economy
Topic: Money and Banking : Financial Market

56.) Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements in not correct?

a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.

b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the consolidated fund of India or the contingency fund of India.

c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the contingency fund of India.

d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving any guarantee by the government of India.

Ans: c

Subject: Economy
Topic: Central Government: Parliament

57.) With reference to the election of the president of India, consider the following statements. 

1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from state to state.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the LokSabha is more than the value of the vote of KPs of the RajyaSabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: c

Subject: Polity
Topic: Central Government : President of India

58.) In the context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional protocol’ with the international Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?

a) The civilian nuclear reactors  come under IAEA safeguards.

b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.

c) The country will have the privilege to but uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).

d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG 

Ans: a

Subject: IR
Topic: World Organisations and Headquarters

59.) Consider the following countries. 

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA

 Which of the above are among the ‘free­trade partners’ of ASEAN?

a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

b) 3, 4, 5, and 6

c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

d) 2, 3, 4 and 6

Ans: c

Subject: IR
Topic: World Organisations and Headquarters

60.) With reference to the ‘Global Alliance  for  Climate­Smart  Agriculture  (GACSA)’,  which  of the following statements is/are correct?

1. GACSA is an outcome  of  the  Climate  Summit  held  in  Paris  in  2015 
2. Membership of GACSA  does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Subject: Polity
Topic: World Organisations and Headquarters

61.) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” plan of the Government  of India?

1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like china did.
2. Established a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect big data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries. 
3. Connect many of our villages to the internet and bring Wi­Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Subject: Polity
Topic: Digital Initiatives

62.) Consider the following pairs:

Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country 

1. Aleppo ­ Syria
2. Kirkuk ­ Yemen
3. Mosul ­ Palestine
4. Mazar­i­sharif ­ Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 4

c) 2 and 3

d) 3 and 4

Ans: b

Subject: Geography
Topic: Current Affairs: Places in News

63.) In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

a) Federal Legislative

b) Governor General

c) Provincial Legislature

d) Provincial Governors 

Ans: b

Subject: Modern India History
Topic: National Movement (1919-1939) : Government of India Act 1935

64.) Consider the following statements:

1. The Speakers of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly
2. Whenever the legislative assembly is dissolved, the speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: a

Subject: Polity
Topic: Central government : Parliament

65.) Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

a) It there are more laws, there is less liberty.

b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.

d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger

 Ans: b

Subject: Polity
Topic: Basics of Constitution

66.) Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowance of the Governor of a State shall not be  diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: c

Subject: Polity
Topic: State Government : Governor

67.) The well­known  painting  “BaniThani”  belongs  to  the

a) Bundi schools

b) Jaipur school

c) Kangra school

d) Kishangarh school 

Ans: d

Subject: Art and Culture
Topic: Indian Paintings

68.) What is  “Terminal  High  Altitude  Area  Defense  (THAAD)”  sometimes  seen  in  the  news?

a) An Israeli radar system

b) India’s indigenous anti missileProgramme.

c) An American anti missile system

d) A defense collaborations between Japan and South Korea 

Ans: c

Subject: Science
Topic: Missile

69.) With references to cultural history of India, consider the following statements: 

1. Most of the Tyagarajakritis are devotional songs in praise of lord Krishna. 
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya   and   Tyagaraj   are   contemporaries
4. Annamacharyakirtanas are devotional songs  in  praise of  Lord Venkateshwara

 Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2, 3 and 4 

Ans: b

Subject: Art and Culture
Topic: Music

70.) Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”? 

1. Limitation of powers

2. Equality before law

3. People’s responsibility to the government 4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1,2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Ans: c

Subject: Polity
Topic: Basics of Constitution

71.) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements.

1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. 
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global  coverage  by  the middle of 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) None 

Ans: a

Subject: Science
Topic: Science and Technology

72.) Consider the following phenomena: 

1. Light is affected by gravity.
2. The universe is constantly expanding.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space­time.

Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

Subject: Science
Topic: Gravity

73.) With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:

1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest­ resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has  the  genes  that  allow  the  plant  cross­pollination  and  hybridization. 
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

 Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Subject: Science
Topic: Agriculture

74.) Consider the following pairs:

Terms sometimes Context/Topic 

1. Belle II experiment Artificial Intelligence
2. Blockchain technology Digital/Cryptocurrency
3. CRISPR – Cas9 Particle Physics

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Subject: Science
Topic: Science and Technology

75.) Which of the following statement best describes “carbon fertilization?

a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

c) Increased acidity of oceans as the result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Ans: a

Subject: Environment
Topic: Government Efforts: India and World: Environmental Acts Policies Conventions

76.) When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning,  you wake  up and  tap it  to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognizes the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if yourare late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.

In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?

a) Border Gateway Protocol

b) Internet of Things

c) Internet Protocol

d) Virtual Private Network 

Ans: b

Subject: Science
Topic: Science Technology and Inventions

77.) Which reference to  solar  power  production  in  India,  consider  the  following  statements: 

1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon waters used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: d

Subject: Geography
Topic: Indian Economy and Human Geography: Energy Resources

78.) The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the  18th century  were

a) Raw cotton, oil­seeds and opium

b) Sugar, salt,  zinc  and  lead

c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea

d) Cotton, silk, saltpeter and opium 

Ans: d

Subject: Modern India History
Topic: India under East India Company's Rule

79.) Which one of the following is  a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?

a) Active all­India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement

b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement

c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement

d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops 

Ans: c

Subject: Modern India History
Topic: Peasants Movement

80.) Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind MazdoorSabha” established in 1948?

a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George

b) Jayaprakash Narayan, DeenDayalUpadhyay and M.N. Roy

c) C.P. RamaswamyIyer,  K.  Kamaraj  and  VeeresalingamPantulu

d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta 

Ans: d

Subject: Modern India History
Topic: Post-Independence Events

81.) With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to

a) Buddhism

b) Jainism

c) Vaishnavism

d) Shaivism 

Ans: b

Subject: Art and Culture
Topic: Ancient History: Jainism

82.) With reference to the cultural History of India, consider the following statements:

1. White  marble  was  used  in  making  Buland Darwaza  and  Khankah  at  Fatehpur Sikri. 
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: a

Subject: Art and Culture
Topic: Architecture: Indo-Islamic Architecture

83.) Which one of the following foreign travelers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines on India

a) Francois Bernier

b) Jean Baptiste Tavernier

c) Jean de Thevenot

d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre 

Ans: b

Subject: Art and Culture
Topic: Travellers of Medieval India

84.) With reference to India history, who among the following is future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

a) Avalokiteshvara

b) Lokesvara

c) Maitreya

d) Padmapani 

Ans: c

Subject: Art and Culture
Topic: Ancient History: Buddhism

85.) Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

a) To maintain a large standing army at other’ expense

b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger

c) To secure a fixed income for the Company

d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States 

Ans: c

Subject: Modern India History
Topic: India under East India Company's rule: British Expansion Policy

86.) Consider the following statements:

1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur  if  the  account­holders  fail  to repay dues.
2. CAR is  decided  by  each  individual  bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

Subject: Economy
Topic: Money and Banking: Monetary Tools and Policies

87.) The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?

1. It can be integrated into any electronic device. 
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: c

Subject: Polity
Topic: Government Policies and Schemes

88.) Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

a) Angola and  Zambia

b) Morocco and  Tunisia

c) Venezuela  and  Colombia

d) Yemen  and  South  Sudan

Ans: d

Subject: IR
Topic: International Affairs

89.) Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true? 

1. Grants ­in­ Aid system was introduced
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: a

Subject: Modern India History
Topic: Changes in Indian Administration after 1858

90.) With reference to the Parliament of India which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub­ rules, by­laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

a) Committee on  Government  Assurances

b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

c) Rules Committee

d) Business Advisory Committee 

Ans: b

Subject: Polity
Topic: Central Government : Parliament

91.) Consider the following statements:

1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to posses the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education Guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3

d) 3 only

Ans: b

Subject: Polity
Topic: Basics of Constitution : Important Acts

92.) Consider the following pairs

Tradition State

1. ChapcharKut  festival  Mizoram
2. KhongjomParba ballad Manipur
3. Thang­Ta dance Sikkim

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2

c) 3 only

d) 2 and 3

Ans: b

Subject: Art and Culture
Topic: Fairs and Festivals

93.) Consider the following statements:

1. The food Safety and Standard Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: a

Subject: Polity
Topic: Basics of Constitution: Important Acts

94.) The term “two state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

a) China

b) Israel

c) Iraq

d) Yemen 

Ans: b

Subject: IR
Topic: International Affairs

95.) With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the Household for the purpose of issuance of a ratio card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take­home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six  months thereafter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3

d) 3 only

Ans: b

Subject: Polity
Topic: Basics of Constitution : Important Acts

96.) India enacted The Geographical indicates of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

a) ILO

b) IMF

c) UNCTAD

d) WTO 

Ans: d

Subject: IR
Topic: World Organisations and Headquarters

97.) Consider the following statements:

1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non­-coal mines. 
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3

d) 3 only

Ans: d

Subject: Geography
Topic: Indian Economic and Human Geography: Mineral Resources

98.) With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI enabled bank account.
2. While a chip­pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: a

Subject: Economy
Topic: Business Economy: Apps in News

99.) Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

a) Bengaluru

b) Hyderabad

c) Nagpur

d) Pune 

Ans: a

Subject: Geography
Topic: Location(s) : Latitude and Longitude

100.) International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to

a) Child labour

b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change

c) Regulation of food prices and food security

d) Gender parity at the workplace

Ans: a

Subject: IR
Topic: Industrial Sector: Labour Reforms

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