Detailed Explanation
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Money Bills in India:
- If any question arises about whether a bill is a money bill or not, the decision of the President is final.
- A money bill is required to be passed by both the Houses of the Parliament.
- The president cannot use his veto powers in the case of Money bills.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect: If any question arises about whether a bill is a money bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of Lok sabha is final.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A money bill is not required to be passed by Rajya Sabha. If Rajya Sabha does not return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, the bill is deemed to have been passed by the Lok Sabha.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The president can use his veto powers in the case of Money bills. However, he cannot use suspensive veto.
Q2. Consider the following statements:
- Savings bank deposits.
- Loans raised by the government by issuing treasury bills.
- Provident fund deposits.
Which of the statements given above is/are part of the Public Account of India?
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: (c)
Explanation:
Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the government is merely acting as a banker.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Loans raised by the government by issuing treasury bills are a part of the consolidated fund of India.
Article 266: The whole or part of the net proceeds of certain taxes and duties to States, all revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised by that Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances and all moneys received by that Government in repayment of loans shall form one consolidated fund to be entitled the Consolidated Fund of India
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Deposits in provident funds, judicial deposits, savings bank deposits, departmental deposits, and remittances are all examples of Public account of India.
Q3. Consider the following statements:
- The Keibul Lamjao National Park, located on the Lake, is the last natural habitat of the 'Sangai' deer.
- The lake comes under both Ramsar Site and Montreux record.
- The Lake is famous for the phumdis floating over it.
The above statements describe which one of the following Lakes?
(a) Wular Lake
(b) Dal Lake
(c) Loktak Lake
(d) Pulicat Lake
Correct answer: (c)
Explanation:
Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India and is famous for the phumdis floating over it.
The Keibul Lamjao National Park located on the Loktak Lake is the last natural habitat of the 'Sangai' (Rucervus eldii eldii), the dancing deer of Manipur.
Q4. Which among the following statements is/are not correct regarding Light Detection and Ranging?
- It was first used on a spacecraft during the Chandrayaan 1 Mission.
- It is basically a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure distances to the subject.
- A LiDAR sensor fires off beams of laser light and then measures how long it takes for the light to return to the sensor
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: LiDAR Stands for Light Detection and Ranging. LiDAR was first used on a spacecraft during the Apollo 15 mission in 1971 when astronauts mapped the surface of the moon.
It is basically a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure distances to the subject.
A LiDAR sensor fires off beams of laser light and then measures how long it takes for the light to return to the sensor.
Q5. The visit of foreigners to India to see the various places/events in the country amounts to which of the following in terms of economy:
(a) Production
(b) Consumption
(c) Import
(d) Export
Correct answer: (d)
Explanation: Tourism brings foreign currency influx and thus regarded as export.
Q6. Which of the following are not counted in India’s GDP calculation?
- Informal sector activity
- Re-exports
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: (d)
Explanation:
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total monetary or market value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a specific time period.
Formula For Calculating GDP
GDP = C + I + G + IX
Where, C = Consumption, I = Investment, G = Government Expenditure, IX = Export - Import.
Re-exports are exports of foreign goods in the same state as previously imported; they are to be included in the country's exports.
Q7. With reference to Gender Parity Index, consider the following statements:
- It is released by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
- India’s GPI indicates that the number of girls is more than the number of boys at all levels of school Education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: (c)
Explanation:
Gender Parity Index in primary, secondary and tertiary education is the ratio of the number of female students enrolled at primary, secondary and tertiary levels of education to the number of male students in each level.
In short, GPI at various levels reflects equitable participation of girls in the School system.
GPI is released by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) as a part of its Global Education Monitoring Report.
A GPI of 1 indicates parity between the sexes; a GPI that varies between 0 and 1 typically means a disparity in favour of males; whereas a GPI greater than 1 indicates a disparity in favour of females.
India’s GPI indicates that the number of girls is more than the number of boys at all levels of school Education.
(India’s GPI for the year 2018-19 at different levels of School Education is as under:
Primary Education: 1.03 Upper Primary Education: 1.12 Secondary Education: 1.04 Higher Secondary Education: 1.04)
Q8. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
- It is a long-term, time-bound, national-level strategy for the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution.
- Under NCAP, it has been envisaged to achieve targets of 50 % reduction in Particulate Matter concentration by 2024 across the country.
- It was launched by the Ministry of Environment Forest &Climate Change (MoEF&CC) in January 2019.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Correct answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: Under NCAP, it has been envisaged to achieve targets of 20 to 30 % reduction in Particulate Matter concentration by 2024 across the country.
It is the first-ever effort in the country to frame a national framework for air quality management with a time-bound reduction target.
The Centre has set a new target of a 40% reduction in particulate matter concentration in cities covered under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) by 2026, updating the earlier goal of 20 to 30% reduction by 2024.
Q9. Consider the following statements with reference to illegal mining in India.
- The State Governments are empowered to frame rules to prevent illegal mining.
- Data regarding the incidence of illegal mining of beach sand minerals is not maintained Centrally.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: (c)
Explanation:
Both statements are correct: As per section 23C of the MMDR Act, 1957 the State Governments are empowered to frame rules to prevent illegal mining and the State Governments may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make such rules for preventing illegal mining, transportation and storage of minerals and for purposes connected therewith. Data regarding the incidence of illegal mining of such minerals is not maintained Centrally.
Q10. Arrange the following from North to South direction:
- Nur sultan
- Tashkent
- Ashgabat
- Tehran
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1–2 – 4 –3
(b) 4 – 3 –2–1
(c) 1 – 2– 3 –4
(d) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
Correct answer: (c)
Explanation:
Nur sultan (formerly Astana) is the capital of Kazakhstan.
Tashkent is the capital of Uzbekistan.
Ashgabat is the capital of Turkmenistan.
Tehran is the capital of Iran.
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CSAT Questions and Solutions
Q11. Aasha can do a piece of work in 12 days. Bindu can do this work in 16 days. Aasha started the work alone. After how many days should Bindu join her, so that the work is finished in 9 days?
(a) 2 days
(b) 3 days
(c) 4 days
(d) 5 days
Correct answer: (d)
Explanation:
Asha's work in 9 days = 9/12 = 3/4. Remaining work = 1/4.
This work was done by Bindu in 1/4 × 16 = 4 days.
∴ Bindu would have joined A after 9 – 4 = 5 days.
Q12. If DJHRSGP is the code for CHENNAI, the code for MOHALI will be:
(a) NQKFPO
(b) NQKEQO
(c) NPIBMJ
(d) ORLGQP
Correct answer: (b)
Explanation:
From the question we can deduce that for CHENNAI, the given code could be obtained by- C+1, H+2, E+3, N+4, N+5, A+6, I+7
Q13. A wholesaler bought two kinds of dry fruits namely A and B. The price of A per kg was thrice that of B per kg. He then sold 8 kg of B at a profit of 10% and 16 kg of A at a profit of 20% to a shopkeeper. However, the shopkeeper lost 5 kg of A and 3 kg of B in transit. He then mixed the remaining dry fruits and sold the mixture at Rs. 166 per kg, thus making an overall profit of 25%. At what price did the wholesaler bought A?
(a) Rs.100 per kg
(b) Rs. 150 per kg
(c) Rs. 96 per kg
(d) Rs. 125 per kg
Correct answer: (c)
Explanation:
Let the prices for wholesaler for A kind of dry fruits and B kind of dry fruits be Rs. 3x and Rs. x respectively.
He sold 8 kgs of B to the shopkeeper at 10% Profit. Cost price of the B kind of dry fruits bought by the shopkeeper = Rs. 1.1x per kg
Similarly, he sold 16 kgs of A kind of dry fruits to the shopkeeper at 20% Profit.
Cost price of the A kind of dry fruits bought by the shopkeeper = 1.2 × 3x = Rs. 3.6x per kg
Overall Cost Price = Rs. (3.6x × 16 + 1.1x × 8)
He lost 5 kgs of A kind of dry fruits and 3 kgs of B kind of dry fruits in the transit.
Remaining quantity of A kind of dry fruits = 16 - 5 = 11 kgs
Remaining quantity of B kind of dry fruits = 8 - 3 = 5 kgs
He mixes them together and sells them at Rs. 166 per kg, making an overall profit of 25%
Overall Selling Price = Rs. 16 × 166
So, Selling Price = (125/100) × Cost Price = (5/4) × Cost Price
or, (5/4) × Overall Cost Price = Overall Selling Price
or, (3.6x × 16 + 1.1x × 8) × (5/4) = 16 × 166
Solving above equation, x = (16 × 166)/83 = Rs. 32
Cost price per Kg of A kind of dry fruits for Wholesaler = Rs. 3x = 3 × 32 = Rs. 96 per kg
Q14. Kamlesh’s birthday is on 20th January and his son Kalpesh’s birthday is on 29th September. This year i.e. in 2020, Kamlesh had his birthday party on 22nd January, which was a Sunday. On what day was Kalpesh’s birthday?
(a) Saturday
(b) Monday
(c) Tuesday
(d) Wednesday
Correct answer: (a)
Explanation:
2020 was a leap year.
Odd days in completed months between January and September = 1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 = 17 i.e. 3 odd days
Odd days in September up to 29th September = 1
Odd days in January will be for the duration 23rd Jan to 31st Jan i.e. 9 days or 2 odd days.
∴ Total odd days = 3 + 1 + 2 = 6
Since there are 6 odd days, 29th September will be 6 days after Sunday i.e. on a Saturday. Hence, option a.
Q15. What is the number in the unit place in (729)^59?
(a) 9
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) 1
Correct answer: (a)
Explanation:
When 729 is multiplied twice, the number in the unit place is 1. In other words, if 729 is multiplied an even number of times, the number in the unit place will be 1. Thus, the number in the unit place in (729)58 is 1.
So, (729)59 = (728)58 X (729) = (…….1) X(729) = 9 in the unit place.
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