UPSC Prelims 2025 Solutions

Set B

Questions 1 to 25

1. Consider the following types of vehicles:

I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: c

Explanation: Alternative powertrains include propulsion systems that are not based exclusively on the popular internal combustion engine. This may include hybrids, full battery electrics, hydrogen fuel cells, compressed air, and many other types.

Full battery electric vehicles (BEVs) - These run entirely on electricity and have no internal combustion engine.
Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles (FCEVs) - These generate electricity from hydrogen to power an electric motor.
Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles - These use both a hydrogen fuel cell and a battery (possibly with regenerative braking).

Subject: Science and Tech, Environment
Source: https://www.acea.auto/fact/alternative-powertrains
Difficulty: Easy

2. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: d

Explanation:

Only certain types of UAVs like multirotor drones and VTOL (Vertical Take-Off and Landing) UAVs can land vertically. In contrast, fixed-wing UAVs need a runway or launching gear and cannot land vertically. Therefore, not all UAVs are capable of vertical landing.
Only drones with rotary-wing designs (like quadcopters or helicopters) can hover in place. Fixed-wing UAVs must move forward to stay airborne and cannot hover, even if automated. Hence, this statement is also incorrect.
UAVs can run on varied power sources such as batteries, petrol/diesel engines, hydrogen fuel cells, and solar energy. Larger drones or those meant for long missions often use internal combustion engines or hybrid systems. So, it is incorrect to say that all UAVs rely only on batteries.

Subject: Science and Technology
Source: https://www.dhs.gov | https://psscive.ac.in
Difficulty: Easy

3. In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: c

Explanation:

Cathode active materials (CAM) are typically composed of metal oxides. The most common cathode materials used in lithium-ion batteries include lithium cobalt oxide (LiCoO2), lithium manganese oxide (LiMn2O4), lithium iron phosphate (LiFePO4 or LFP), and lithium nickel manganese cobalt oxide (LiNiMnCoO2 or NMC). Each of these materials offers varying levels of energy density, thermal stability, and cost-effectiveness.
Anode active materials (AAM), on the other hand, are generally made from carbon-based materials like graphite, silicon, or a combination of both. Graphite is the most commonly used anode material due to its high electrical conductivity, low cost, and stable structure. Silicon anodes offer higher energy density but face challenges in terms of volume expansion and shorter cycle life. Some anode iterations will also ‘dope’ graphite anodes with a small amount of silicon to improve performance characteristics and energy density.
Cobalt
- Commonly used in cathode materials like Lithium Cobalt Oxide (LiCoO₂) and Nickel Manganese Cobalt Oxide (NMC). Cobalt improves energy density and battery life.
Nickel
- A key component in NMC and Lithium Nickel Cobalt Aluminum Oxide (NCA) cathodes. It increases energy density and reduces reliance on cobalt.
Lithium
- All lithium-ion batteries use lithium in the cathode as part of metal oxides like LiCoO₂, LiMn₂O₄, LiFePO₄, etc.
Graphite
- Graphite is used in anodes, not cathodes. It is favoured for its conductivity, structural stability, and cost-effectiveness.

Subject: Science and Tech, Environment
Source: https://elements.visualcapitalist.com
Difficulty: Difficult

4. Consider the following:

I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: c

Explanation:

Cigarette butts contain cellulose acetate, a type of plastic, in their filters. They don’t fully decompose and are a major microplastic pollutant.
Eyeglass lenses are often made from polycarbonate or CR-39 plastic, not glass, due to durability and lightweight properties.
Car tyres are composed of a mixture of natural rubber and synthetic rubber (plastics like styrene-butadiene rubber), along with additives and reinforcing materials.

Subject: Science and Technology
Source: https://cpcb.nic.in | https://www.optometryadvisor.com
Difficulty: Medium

5. Consider the following substances:

I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: c

Explanation: Coal gasification is a process that converts coal into syngas, a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen (H₂). This syngas can be used as a basic chemical feedstock for producing a wide range of chemicals. Let’s see how each substance can be derived:

Ethanol: Syngas (from coal) can be catalytically converted to ethanol. Though not as common as fermentation, this pathway exists and is used in some industrial settings.
Nitroglycerine: Coal-derived syngas produces ammonia, which is used to make nitric acid. Nitric acid then reacts with glycerol to make nitroglycerine. So, coal contributes indirectly via precursors.
Urea: A direct application—syngas is used to make ammonia, which reacts with CO₂ to produce urea. Widely used in the fertiliser industry.

Subject: Economic Geography | Science and Technology
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in
Difficulty: Hard

6. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in the media?

(a) These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants
(b) These are explosives in military weapons
(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion

Answer: b

Explanation:

All three are high-energy explosives used in advanced military applications. CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane) is one of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives.
HMX (High Melting eXplosive) is a powerful and stable explosive used in missiles.
LLM-105 is a newer explosive with high performance and less sensitivity, researched by defence institutions.

Subject: Science and Technology
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in
Difficulty: Easy

7. Consider the following statements:

I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: c

Explanation:

The Majorana 1 chip is a quantum computing chip being developed using Majorana fermions—exotic particles that are expected to improve the stability of qubits by making them less error-prone.
This chip is aimed at enabling scalable quantum computing.
The Majorana 1 chip is not introduced by AWS. It is part of research by companies like Microsoft and research institutions such as Delft University and TU Braunschweig, not Amazon. AWS Braket is AWS’s quantum service but not related to this chip.
Deep learning is a specialised subset of machine learning that uses neural networks with many layers. It is used in image recognition, NLP, etc. (Source: NCERT Class XI Informatics Practices, NITI Aayog AI Report)

Subject: Science and Technology
Source: https://news.microsoft.com | techcrunch.com | indiaai.gov.in
Difficulty: Medium

8. With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: They are engineered/man-made proteins designed to target specific antigens.
Statement II is correct: They help modulate the immune system by binding to specific cells.
Statement III is correct: They’ve been used in treating viruses like Nipah and COVID-19 (e.g., REGN-COV2).

Subject: Science and Technology
Source: https://www.cancer.org
Difficulty: Easy

9. Consider the following statements:

I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect: Many viruses do survive and thrive in ocean waters. In fact, marine viruses are among the most abundant biological entities on Earth, playing critical roles in regulating marine microbial populations and nutrient cycles. They infect marine bacteria, archaea, and plankton.
Statement II is incorrect: Bacteriophages, or phages, are viruses that specifically infect bacteria. They are widely studied in genetic engineering and were the earliest evidence for viruses infecting organisms.
Statement III is correct: Viruses definitely alter the transcriptional activity of host cells. Upon infection, viral genomes often hijack the host's transcription machinery to express viral proteins. This is a fundamental characteristic of all viruses.

Subject: Science and Technology
Source: https://www.nature.com | https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov
Difficulty: Medium

10. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement I is correct:
- Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. This statement is correct.
- Activated carbon is widely recognised for its effectiveness in removing a broad spectrum of pollutants from industrial effluents and wastewater streams through adsorption.
Statement II is correct:
- Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. This statement is also correct.
- Activated carbon is characterised by its high porosity and large surface area, which makes it an excellent adsorbent for various pollutants, including heavy metals.
- The large surface area and the presence of functional groups on activated carbon enhance its ability to adsorb heavy metal ions from water.
Statement III is correct:
- Activated carbon can be easily synthesised from environmental wastes with high carbon content. This statement is correct as well.
- Activated carbon can be produced from various waste materials with high carbon content, such as agricultural residues, biomass, coconut shells, spent coffee grounds, and waste-activated sludge.
- The processes for converting these wastes into activated carbon are well-established and considered sustainable and scalable
  - Statement II explains Statement I because the large surface area and strong adsorption capacity of activated carbon are the primary reasons it is effective in removing pollutants from effluent streams.
  - Statement III supports Statement I by indicating that activated carbon is not only effective but can also be produced sustainably and economically from waste materials, making it an attractive tool for industrial applications.

Subject: Environment
Source: https://www.sciencedirect.com
Difficulty: Medium

11. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Cement Industry is responsible for 7-8% of global carbon dioxide emissions (UNFCCC/IPCC).

Statement 2 is correct: During cement manufacturing, silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone. This mixture is then heated in a kiln, undergoing a process called calcination, to produce clinker, the main ingredient in cement.
Statement 3 is correct: During the high-temperature calcination process in clinker production, limestone (CaCO3) decomposes to form lime (CaO) and releases CO2: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
Now, examining which statements explain Statement I:
- Statement II describes a raw material input but doesn't explain why the cement industry produces high CO2 emissions.
- Statement III directly explains the major source of CO2 emissions in cement production - the chemical decomposition of limestone that releases CO2 as a byproduct. This process accounts for about 60% of cement industry emissions, with the remainder from fuel combustion.
- Both Statement II and Statement III are factually correct, but only Statement III explains why the cement industry has such high carbon emissions.
The answer is (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I.

Subject: Environment and Ecology
Source: https://www.researchgate.net | https://www.ultratechcement.com
Difficulty: Hard

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.
Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize the health sector.
Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement I is correct and self-explanatory.
Statement II is incorrect. The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is explicitly described as a non-binding, voluntary political commitment aimed at galvanizing action, not a legally enforceable mandate
Statement III is correct: Curbing greenhouse gas use for cooling in the health sector, which is one of the points in the document, may not be practical or achievable within the country's healthcare infrastructure in the short term. This may lead to compromise in resilience of India’s health-care system. (This statement is vague, the answer may vary based on how you interpret it.)
Thus, only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I.

Subject: Environment and Ecology
Source: https://www.cop28.com | https://economictimes.com
Difficulty: Medium

13. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.
Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.
- This is correct. Multiple recent studies confirm that Earth's axis and rotation are shifting, with causes including redistribution of water and mass on the planet.
Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
- This statement is factually incorrect. There is no scientific evidence linking solar flares or coronal mass ejections to the observed shifts in Earth's axis or rotation. The shifts are attributed to redistribution of mass, especially due to water movement and melting ice.
Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.
- This is correct. Scientific research shows that melting polar ice contributes water to the oceans, which redistributes mass toward the equator and affects Earth's rotation and axis.
Statement(s) Explain Statement I
- Statement III directly explains Statement I. The redistribution of mass due to melting polar ice and the movement of water toward the equator is a primary cause of the observed shift in Earth's axis and rotation.
- Statement II does not explain Statement I, as solar flares are not responsible for the axis shift.

Subject: Geography
Source: https://www.jpl.nasa.gov
Difficulty: Easy

14. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct - Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is a frequent topic in global climate and sustainable development discussions, as it provides the framework for international cooperation on climate action
Statement 2 is correct - Article 6 of the Paris Agreement sets out how countries can pursue voluntary cooperation to reach their climate targets. It enables international cooperation to tackle climate change and unlock financial support for developing countries. This means that, under Article 6, countries are able to transfer carbon credits earned from the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions to help one or more countries meet their climate targets. There are three tools which countries can draw upon under Article 6, one of which is the Paris Agreement Crediting Mechanism (PACM) - the UN’s new high-integrity carbon crediting mechanism.
Statement 3 is correct - Article 6 also includes provisions (specifically Article 6.8) for promoting non-market-based approaches, enabling countries to cooperate through strategies such as technology transfer and capacity building, beyond just carbon trading
Now examining which statements explain Statement I:
Both Statement II and Statement III explain why Article 6 is frequently discussed:
- The establishment of international carbon market principles (Statement II) is a significant and complex topic that generates extensive discussion
- The promotion of non-market cooperation strategies (Statement III) is equally important and frequently debated in international forums.
Both mechanisms represent major pathways for international climate cooperation, making Article 6 a central topic in global climate discussions.
Thus the answer is (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.

Subject: Environment and Ecology
Source: https://unfccc.int | https://unfccc.int/process
Difficulty: Medium

15. Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?

(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
(c) The New Development Bank (NDB)
(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Answer: a

Explanation: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched a Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific at COP28 which aims to attract at least $2 billion into investment programs that incorporate nature-based solutions, particularly focused on capital markets and other sources of private capital. The hub will deploy a range of financing measures to reduce risks in nature-based solutions projects such as guarantees, impact-linked payments, and blended finance options. The hub is targeting about $1 billion in such de-risking funds from global development partners with advanced discussions underway with several entities.

Subject: Environment and Ecology
Source: https://www.adb.org
Difficulty: Easy

16. With reference to Direct Air Capture, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and II only
(b) III only
(c) I, II and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement I is correct - Direct Air Capture (DAC) technology extracts CO2 directly from ambient air. The captured CO2 can then be permanently stored underground or in other long-term storage solutions, making it a form of carbon sequestration that removes CO2 from the atmosphere.
Statement II is correct - The CO2 captured through DAC can be used as a feedstock for various industrial processes:
- In plastic production: CO2 can be converted into chemicals like methanol or other carbon-based compounds used in polymer manufacturing.
- In food processing: CO2 has various applications including carbonation of beverages, packaging (modified atmosphere packaging), and as a refrigerant.
Statement III is correct - In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel: DAC-derived CO₂ can be combined with green hydrogen to synthesise low-carbon fuels suitable for aviation and other transport sectors Thus, all three statements are correct.

Subject: Environment and Ecology
Source: https://www.wri.org
Difficulty: Hard

17. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and III
(c) II only
(d) II and III

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect: The Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula, Poecilotheria metallica) is an arachnid, not a crustacean, and it is a predator that primarily feeds on insects, not an omnivore.
Statement II is correct: The Gooty tarantula has a very restricted range in India, found only in specific forest areas in Andhra Pradesh (particularly around the town of Gooty, from which it gets its name) and Tamilnadu. It has an extremely limited natural distribution.
Statement III is correct: The Peacock tarantula is an arboreal species, living in tree holes and crevices in its forest habitat . Thus, statements II and III are correct.

Subject: Environment and Ecology
Source: https://www.thehindu.com | https://focusedconservation.org
Difficulty:

18. Consider the following statements:

I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂ / capita.
II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect: India's per capita CO₂ emissions are significantly higher, at around 1.9 to 2.07 metric tons per capita as of 2023.
Statement 2 is correct: In the Asia-Pacific region, China ranks first in total CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, and India ranks second.
Statement 3 is correct: The power sector (electricity and heat producers) is the largest source of greenhouse gas emissions in India.

Subject: Environment and Ecology
Source: https://www.statista.com
Difficulty:

19. Consider the following pairs:

Plant	Description
I. Cassava	Woody shrub
II. Ginger	Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach	Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint	Annual shrub
V. Papaya	Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five

Answer: b

Explanation:

Pair I is correct. Cassava (Manihot esculenta) is indeed a woody shrub.
Pair II is correct. Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a herbaceous plant with a pseudostem formed by rolled leaf bases.
Pair III is correct. Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is a fast-growing, soft-stemmed, herbaceous climbing plant.
Pair IV is incorrect. Mint (Mentha spp.) is a perennial herb, not an annual shrub.
Pair V is incorrect. Papaya (Carica papaya) is generally considered a small, soft-wooded tree or tree-like herb, not a woody shrub.
So, Pair I, II, III are correct.

Subject: Environment and Ecology Source:
Difficulty: Hard

20. With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.
III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) I and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect: While rainforests are significant oxygen producers, the oceans produce considerably more oxygen than terrestrial rainforests. Marine photosynthesis, primarily by phytoplankton, is the dominant source of atmospheric oxygen production on Earth.
Statement II is correct: Scientific estimates indicate that marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria (primarily cyanobacteria) in the oceans produce approximately 50-70% of the world's oxygen through photosynthesis. This makes oceanic sources the largest contributors to global oxygen production.
Statement III is incorrect: The concentration of dissolved oxygen in well-oxygenated surface water is much lower than the concentration of oxygen in atmospheric air. Atmospheric air contains about 21% oxygen by volume, while even saturated surface water contains only a few parts per million (ppm) of dissolved oxygen. Thus, only statement 2 is correct

Subject: Environment and Ecology
Source:
Difficulty:

21. Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: c

Explanation: Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Subject: Modern Indian History
Source: https://www.srjis.com.pdf
Difficulty: Easy

22. Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
II. Observance of strict non-violence
III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth: Yes, these were key components of the Non-Cooperation Movement, which sought to withdraw support from British institutions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Observance of strict non-violence – No, while Mahatma Gandhi emphasized non-violence, there were instances where the movement saw violent outbreaks, leading to its suspension in 1922 after the Chauri Chaura incident.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Retention of titles and honours without using them in public – No, the movement called for a complete renunciation of British-given titles and honours, not just refraining from using them.
Statement 4 is Correct: Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes – Yes, the idea of local self-governance and dispute resolution outside colonial courts was encouraged.

Subject: Modern Indian History
Source: NCERT, Spectrum and UPSCprep Class Notes
Difficulty: Easy

23. The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was:

(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
(c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Answer: b

Explanation: In the economic history of medieval India, “Araghatta” refers to the waterwheel, or Persian wheel, used for irrigation purposes. Araghatta is a mechanical device, a type of waterwheel, used to lift water, typically from wells, for irrigating fields. These wheels are an ancient technology used to lift water and have been in use for the last 800 years in the Indian subcontinent (and in other parts of the world as well, spanning Southern Europe and North Africa). They were possibly introduced to North West India sometime during the early Delhi Sultanates as the wheels made access to water considerably easier across the region.

Subject: Medieval Indian History
Source: PYQs - UPSC CSE 2016
Difficulty: Easy

24. Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?

(a) Mahendravarman I
(b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimhavarman I
(d) Simhavarman

Answer: a

Explanation: The ancient Indian ruler who assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta', and 'Gunabhara' was Mahendravarman I of the Pallava dynasty. He ruled from around 600 to 630 CE and was renowned for his contributions to art, architecture, and literature. Mahendravarman I was a pioneer in rock-cut temple architecture, authored the Sanskrit play Mattavilasa Prahasanam, and was known for his talents in music and painting.

Subject: Ancient Indian History
Source: Upinder Singh
Difficulty: Hard

25. Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of:

(a) Samudragupta
(b) Chandragupta II
(c) Kumaragupta I
(d) Skandagupta

Answer: b

Explanation: Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, traveled to India during the reign of Chandragupta II.Chandragupta II was a prominent ruler of the Gupta dynasty, and Faxian's visit occurred in the early 5th century CE.

Subject: Ancient Indian History
Source: Old NCERT Class 11th / R.S. Sharma and UPSCprep Class Notes
Difficulty: Easy

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Questions 26 to 50

26. Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
(c) Rajendra I (Chola)
(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

Answer: c

Explanation: Srivijaya was a powerful maritime kingdom controlling the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java, and neighboring islands during the early medieval period. Around the 11th century CE, Rajendra Chola I launched naval expeditions against Srivijaya to assert Chola dominance over the important maritime trade routes of Southeast Asia. These campaigns disrupted Srivijaya's control over the Strait of Malacca and demonstrated the naval prowess of the Chola Empire.

Subject: Medieval Indian History
Source: Old NCERT Class 11th / Satish Chandra and UPSCprep Class Notes
Difficulty: Easy

27. With reference to ancient India (600–322 BCE), consider the following pairs:

Territorial Region	River flowing in the region
I. Asmaka	Godavari
II. Kamboja	Vipas (Beas)
III. Avanti	Mahanadi
IV. Kosala	Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: b

Explanation:

I. Asmaka – Godavari (Correct): Asmaka (Assaka) was in the Deccan; the Godavari flows through that region.
II. Kamboja – Vipas (Incorrect): Kamboja was in the northwest (Afghanistan/northern Pakistan); Vipas (Beas) flows in modern Himachal/Punjab but is not in Kamboja.
III. Avanti – Mahanadi (Incorrect): Avanti corresponds to Malwa (central India); main rivers there are Chambal, Narmada. Mahanadi flows in eastern India (Odisha/Chhattisgarh).
IV. Kosala – Sarayu (Correct): Kosala kingdom was centred around the Sarayu (modern UP).

Therefore, exactly two pairs (I and IV) are correct.

Subject: Ancient Indian History
Source: Old NCERT Class 11th / R.S. Sharma + Upinder Singh, "A History of Ancient and Early Medieval India"
Difficulty: Hard

28. The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in:

(a) Delhi
(b) Gwalior
(c) Ujjain
(d) Lahore

Answer: d

Explanation: The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a pioneering music training school, was established by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar on 5 May 1901 in Lahore (then part of undivided India). Paluskar founded this institution with the vision of democratising and spreading Hindustani classical music education to the broader public, moving away from the traditional system of exclusive court patronage. The school in Lahore became a major centre for music education and inspired the creation of affiliated institutions across India

Subject: Art and Culture / Modern Indian History
Source: https://abgmvm.org
Difficulty: Hard

9. Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the:

(a) village-level administration
(b) district-level administration
(c) provincial administration
(d) level of the central administration

Answer: b

Explanation: Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the pradeshika, rajuka, and yukta were important officers at the district level. Rock edict 3 refers to these officers going on tours every five years in order to instruct people in dhamma and for other purposes. Bongard-Levin (1971: 115) suggests that the rajukas of the inscriptions can be identified with the agronomoi of Megasthenes, who seem to have been connected with the measurement of land for purposes of revenue assessment. The term rajuka may come from rajju, meaning rope, and the reference may be to the measurement of land using ropes.

Subject: Ancient Indian History
Source: Upinder Singh
Difficulty: Hard

30. Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct: The Congress, under Mahatma Gandhi’s leadership, declared the attainment of Swaraj through legitimate and peaceful means as its objective during the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Statement 2 is Correct: Gandhi planned the movement in stages, beginning with non-cooperation (boycotts of British institutions, titles, and goods) and moving to civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes if Swaraj was not achieved within a year. The escalation depended on both government's response and the people's commitment.

Subject: Modern Indian History
Source: Class VIII NCERT Our Pasts III; Britannica (Non-Cooperation Movement)
Difficulty: Easy

31. With reference to investments, consider the following:

I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: b

Explanation:
According to SEBI’s classification (Alternative Investment Funds Regulations, 2012):

Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) include privately pooled funds (Category I, II, III).
Category I AIFs: Venture Capital Funds, SME Funds, Infrastructure Funds, etc.
Category II AIFs: Private equity funds, debt funds, hedge funds, etc.
“Venture Capital Funds” (IV) and “Hedge Funds” (II) are AIFs.
“Bonds” (I) and “Stocks” (III) are not AIFs (they are traditional securities).

Subject: Indian Economy
Source: https://www.sebi.gov.in
Difficulty: Medium

32. Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and II only
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III, IV and V
(d) I, II and V

Answer: (d) I, II and V

Explanation:

I (Yes): RBI buys/sells government bonds (G-Secs) in the open market; earns interest and capital gains.
II (Yes): RBI’s forex operations: buys/sells foreign exchange; earns from trading margins/spreads.
III (No): RBI manages pension fund only for its own employees; not a source of external income.
IV (No): RBI does not lend to private companies directly; it lends to banks and financial institutions.
V (Yes): RBI recovers printing costs (charges govt.), and collects issue fees for printing and distributing currency.

Subject: Indian Economy
Source: Indian Economy Handbook
Difficulty: Easy

33. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Organization	Some of its functions	It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Internal Security Division-I, MHA
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, MoF
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders	Department of Revenue, MoF

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: b

Explanation:

Mismatch - I. Directorate of Enforcement (ED): Actually works under the Ministry of Finance (MoF), Department of Revenue, not MHA’s Internal Security Division.
Correct - II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI): Enforces Customs Act, 1962, works under Department of Revenue, MoF.
Correct - III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management (DGSDM): Responsible for big data analytics for tax officers, works under Department of Revenue, MoF.

So, exactly two rows (II and III) are correct.

Subject: Economy / Polity
Source: https://enforcementdirectorate.gov.in/
Difficulty: Hard

34. Consider the following statements:

I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement I (Incorrect): SEBI (not RBI) mandates that the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalisation file a BRSR. RBI does not handle this mandate.
Statement II (Correct): BRSR disclosures focus on ESG (Environmental, Social, Governance) parameters—non-financial aspects like carbon footprint, gender diversity, governance structures, and sustainability practices.

Subject: Indian Economy
Source: Economic Survey
Difficulty: Medium

35. Consider the following statements:

I. In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
II. In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect: Agricultural income is exempted from tax under the Income-tax Act, 1961. It is important to note that income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming, wool rearing, etc. are not considered as agricultural income. Hence, tax may be levied on incomes from such activities.
Statement II is Correct: Yes, In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Subject: Economy
Source: https://www.businesstoday.in
Difficulty: Hard

36. Consider the following statements:

I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member in June 2023.
Statement II is incorrect: India has identified 30 critical minerals and is actively working to strengthen its position in the mining and processing of these resources. While India possesses some mineral resources, it faces import dependency for several, particularly for lithium, cobalt, nickel, and germanium. The Government of India has launched initiatives like the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) to enhance self-reliance in this sector.
Statement III is correct:

Subject: Economy / Geography / Current Affairs
Source:
• https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1946416
• https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2120525
• https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1945102
Difficulty: Medium

37. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement I (Correct): Bondholders lend money; they receive fixed interest. Stockholders bear residual risk/return.
Statement II (Correct): Bondholders are creditors (lenders); stockholders are owners (equity).
Statement III (Correct): On liquidation, bondholders have priority over stockholders; interest/principal paid to bondholders before equity dividends.

Thus, II and III both explain why bondholders face lower risk than stockholders.

Subject: Indian Economy
Source: Indian Economy Handbook
Difficulty: Easy

38. Consider the following statements:

I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: a

Explanation: Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory authority responsible for the regulation of capital markets including derivatives and options trading.

Subject: Indian Economy
Source: Indian Economy Handbook
Difficulty: Easy

39. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: a

Explanation: Circular economy aims to close resource loops by reusing, recycling, refurbishing, remanufacturing, reducing inputs, and minimising waste.

Subject: Indian Economy / Environment
Source: Indian Economy Handbook
Difficulty: Easy

40. Consider the following statements:

I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: a

Explanation: Under government accounting, Capital Receipts either create a liability (e.g., borrowings) or cause a reduction in assets (e.g., disinvestment).

Subject: Indian Economy
Source: Indian Economy Handbook
Difficulty: Easy

41. Consider the following countries:

I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All the six

Answer: (b) Only four

Explanation: The question holds importance due to the induction of Sweden as the 32nd member in 2024.

NATO Members from this list: Bulgaria (joined 2004), Croatia (2009), Sweden (joined 2024), North Macedonia (2020).
Not NATO: Austria (neutral), Serbia (non-aligned).
Thus, four of the six are NATO members.

Subject: International Relations / Current Affairs
Source: https://www.nato.int
Difficulty: Medium

42. Consider the following countries:

I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five

Answer: c

Explanation:
The Andes Mountains run along the western edge of South America, passing through:

Bolivia (Yes)
Colombia (Yes)
Ecuador (Yes)
Venezuela (Yes; Andes extend into western Venezuela)
Not through Brazil or Paraguay.

So, four countries from the list.

Subject: Geography
Source: Oxford Atlas; https://www.maptrove.com
Difficulty: Medium

43. Consider the following water bodies:

I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: d

Explanation:

Lake Tanganyika: Located between ~3°–8°S, the equator does not pass through it.
Lake Tonlé Sap: In Cambodia (~11°N), the equator does not pass through it.
Patos Lagoon: In Brazil (~32°–33°S), the equator does not pass through it.
Hence, none.

Subject: Geography
Source: World Atlas
Difficulty: Hard

44. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: d

Explanation: All three statements are correct.

I (Correct): India is the largest producer, consumer and exporter of turmeric in the world. In the year 2022-23, an area of 3.24 lakh ha was under turmeric cultivation in India with a production of 11.61 lakh tonnes (over 75% of global turmeric production).
II (Correct): More than 30 varieties of Turmeric are grown in India and it is grown in over 20 states in the country.
III (Correct): The largest producing states of Turmeric are Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
India has more than 62% share of the world trade in turmeric. During 2022-23, 1.534 lakh tonnes of turmeric and turmeric products valued at 207.45 million USD were exported by more than 380 exporters.
The leading export markets for Indian Turmeric are Bangladesh, UAE, USA and Malaysia. With the focused activities of the Board, it is expected that turmeric exports will reach USD 1 billion by 2030.

Subject: Geography
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in
Difficulty: Medium

45. Which of the following are evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only

Answer: c

Explanation: All three statements are correct as shown in the image below.

I (Correct): Precambrian shield rocks in eastern Brazil align with those in western Africa (West African Shield).
II (Correct): Gold-bearing quartz veins and greenstone belts in Ghana correlate geologically with Brazil’s Birimian greenstone belt (both were contiguous in Gondwana).
III (Correct): Gondwana sediments in India (e.g., Jurassic coal measures) correlate with marine and fluvial deposits in South America, Africa, Antarctica, Australia, and Madagascar.

These matching geological features across continents provide strong evidence for continental drift.

Subject: Geography
Source: NCERT Class 11, Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Chapter 4
Difficulty: Easy

46. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement I is correct - Subtropical and temperate regions, especially those including deserts such as the Sahara, Arabian Peninsula, and Central Asia, are major global sources of atmospheric dust. These regions experience high dust loading due to factors like arid climates, erodible soils, and strong winds. In contrast, equatorial regions are typically humid and densely vegetated, which suppresses dust emissions, while polar regions have little exposed soil and are often covered by ice or snow, limiting dust availability.
Statement II is incorrect - Subtropical and temperate regions actually have more dry winds, not less. The prevalence of dry, strong winds in these areas (such as the Shamal, Harmattan, and westerlies) is a key reason for the high dust emissions and transport observed there. These winds lift and carry dust over large distances, contributing to higher atmospheric dust concentrations.

Subject: Geography
Source: https://cuet.iitk.ac.in
Difficulty: Hard

47. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I is correct - In January (winter in the Northern Hemisphere), landmasses cool more rapidly and to a greater extent than oceans. As a result, isotherms (lines of equal temperature) bend southward (equatorward) over the colder continents and northward (poleward) over the relatively warmer oceans.
Statement II is correct - During this time, the air above the oceans remains warmer than the air above the land at the same latitude because water retains heat longer and cools more slowly than land.

Subject: Geography
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Chapter 9
Difficulty: Easy

48. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In the context of the effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statement II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct.

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect: Chalk has low permeability and clay is quite impermeable.
Statement II is correct: Chalk is porous and can absorb water, which explains its permeability.
Statement III is incorrect: Clay has very low permeability because its pores are extremely small and not well-connected. Clay is not at all porous is wrong. (most porous)

Only Statement II is correct and explains why chalk is (relatively) more permeable than clay.

Subject: Geography
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Chapter 5 & 6 | https://www.sciencedirect.com
Difficulty: Medium

49. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
Statement II: Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
Statement III: Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement I (Correct): Without greenhouse gases, Earth’s average surface temperature would be ~–18 °C (well below freezing) rather than the current ~15 °C.
Statement II (Correct): Atmosphere absorbs solar and terrestrial radiation; greenhouse gases trap longwave infrared, maintaining average temperature.
Statement III (Correct): CO₂, CH₄, H₂O vapour, etc., absorb/emit infrared radiation, fundamental to the greenhouse effect.

Subject: Geography
Source: NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Chapter 8 & 9
Difficulty: Easy

50. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

Statement I: It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
Statement II: It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement I: Correct. The Rashtriya Gokul Mission is especially important for the upliftment of rural poor, as the majority of low-producing indigenous animals are owned by small and marginal farmers and landless laborers. The scheme is designed to enhance productivity and benefits for these groups.
Statement II: Correct. The mission was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner, as explicitly stated in its objectives.

Subject: Current Affairs
Source: https://dahd.gov.in
Difficulty: Medium

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Questions 51 to 75

51. Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement I: Incorrect. Article 243B(2) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs.
Statement II: Incorrect. According to Article 243F of the Indian Constitution, the minimum age prescribed for election as a member of a Panchayat is 21 years
Statement III: Incorrect. Article 243I of the Indian Constitution mandates that the Governor of a State constitutes a Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats and make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties between the State and Panchayats at all levels.

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: M. Laxmikanth , Bare Act
Difficulty: Medium

52. Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of tourism is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) I only

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: BIMSTEC consists of seven member states—Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand—until January 2025.
Statement II is incorrect: BIMSTEC was established through the Bangkok Declaration in 1997, not the Dhaka Declaration of 1999.
Statement III is incorrect: The founding members of BIMSTEC were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand(originally called BIST-EC). Myanmar joined in 1997, and Nepal and Bhutan joined in 2004.
Statement IV is correct: India leads the tourism subsector within BIMSTEC, overseeing initiatives like the BIMSTEC Tourism Fund and regional tourism promotion.

Subject: International Relations/Organisations
Source: https://www.mea.gov.in | https://bimstec.org/tourism
Difficulty: Medium

53. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?

I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) II and IV only
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and III only

Answer: c

Explanation:

The Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson of the jury.
The Chief Justice of India is a member.
The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha is also a member.
The President of India is not part of the jury. Additionally, the jury includes two eminent persons appointed every three years

Subject: Current Affairs/Miscellaneous
Source: https://www.indiaculture.gov.in
Difficulty: Medium

54. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?

I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II. It will allow more uniform and high-quality air traffic management.
III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I, II and III
(b) II and III only
(c) I only
(d) I and II only

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: GAGAN is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity for satellite-based navigation, particularly for civil aviation.
Statement II is correct: GAGAN enhances air traffic management by improving navigation precision, making flight operations more efficient and safer.
Statement III is incorrect: While GAGAN is primarily developed for aviation, it also benefits other sectors, such as railways, maritime navigation, and disaster management, by improving location accuracy

Subject: Science and Technology
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com
Difficulty: Medium

55. Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: The AI Action Summit in Paris was co-chaired by India and built upon the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit (UK, 2023) and the Seoul Summit (South Korea, 2024).
Statement II is incorrect: While many countries signed the Joint Declaration on Inclusive and Sustainable AI, the US and UK did not sign it, citing concerns about excessive regulations on AI

Subject: Current Affairs/International Relations
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in | https://indianexpress.com
Difficulty: Medium

56. Consider the following pairs:

I. International Year of the Woman Farmer: 2026
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism: 2027
III. International Year of Peace and Trust: 2025
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence: 2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: d

Explanation:

International Year of the Woman Farmer (2026) – Correct. The UN General Assembly adopted a resolution declaring 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer.
International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism (2027) – Correct. The UN designated 2027 for this theme to promote sustainable tourism.
International Year of Peace and Trust (2025) – Correct. The UN has recognized 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust.
International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence (2029) – Correct. The UN has designated 2029 for raising awareness about asteroid threats and planetary defense

Subject: International Relations/Current Affairs
Source: https://www.un.org
Difficulty: Hard

57. Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:

I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I only

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Statement 3 is incorrect as the theme was "Strengthening multilateralism" not multiculturalism

Subject: International Relations
Source: https://indianexpress.com
Difficulty: Medium

58. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) III only
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement I: Incorrect. The jurisdiction of the Lokpal extends to public servants both within India and abroad. Section 14 of the Act defines "public servant" to include individuals serving in India and abroad.
Statement II: Incorrect. While it's true that the Chairperson or a Member must not be a Member of Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, the requirement for the Chairperson is not limited to the Chief Justice of India. The Act specifies that the Chairperson should be a person of eminence who fulfils certain eligibility criteria, which include being a former Chief Justice of India, a former Supreme Court Judge, or an individual with impeccable integrity and outstanding ability in relevant fields.
Statement III: Correct. According to the Act, a person shall not be eligible to be appointed as the Chairperson or a Member if they are less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office.
Statement IV: Incorrect. The Lokpal can inquire into allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister, but with certain limitations. The Act allows such inquiries unless the allegations pertain to matters of national security, external affairs, public order, atomic energy, or space. Additionally, any such inquiry requires the approval of at least two-thirds of the full bench of the Lokpal and must be conducted in camera.

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: M. Laxmikanth, Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
Difficulty: Medium

59. Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:

I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champions in the men's category.
III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champions in the women's category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: The first Kho Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi, India, at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium from January 13–19, 2025.
Statement II is incorrect: The Indian men’s team defeated Nepal with a score of 54–36, not 78–40.
Statement III is incorrect: The Indian women’s team defeated Nepal with a score of 78–40 to become the world champions.

Subject: sports/ CA
Source: https://www.olympics.com
Difficulty: Hard

60. Consider the following statements:

I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement I: Incorrect. The 45th Chess Olympiad is scheduled to be held in 2024, but the Chess Olympiad is a team event, not an individual final. Gukesh Dommaraju did not become the "world’s youngest winner" at the Chess Olympiad by defeating Ian Nepomniachtchi. However, Gukesh D did win the 2024 Candidates Tournament and became the youngest ever challenger for the World Chess Championship, but not at the Chess Olympiad.
Statement II: Correct. Abhimanyu Mishra became the world’s youngest ever Grandmaster in June 2021 at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days.

Subject: Current Affairs
Source: https://www.europechess.org | https://www.thehindu.com
Difficulty: Hard

61. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: Rare earths like europium and terbium are used in display screens.
Statement II is correct: Their phosphorescent properties allow them to emit visible light, making them useful in screens and LEDs.

Subject: Science & Technology
Source: https://profession.americangeosciences.org
Difficulty: Medium

62. Consider the following statements:

I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future ready railway system by 2028.
II. ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: The National Rail Plan targets a future-ready system by 2030, not 2028.
Statement II is incorrect: Kavach is an indigenous safety system developed by Indian Railways, not Germany.
Statement III is incorrect: Kavach uses RFID on tracks and trains, but “station section” wording is vague and misleading.

Subject: Science & Technology
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in | https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com
Difficulty: Medium

63. Consider the following space missions:

I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan

How many of the space missions given above encourage microgravity research?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: c

Explanation: Axiom-4 is a private space mission that facilitates microgravity research on ISS. SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment by ISRO) includes plans to study microgravity conditions. Gaganyaan will conduct experiments related to microgravity in the Indian human spaceflight mission.

Subject: Science & technology
Source: https://www.nasa.gov | https://www.isro.gov.in
Difficulty: Medium

64. With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:

Aircraft type	Description
I. Dornier-228	Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76	Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III	Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: b

Explanation:

I is correctly matched - The Dornier 228 is a twin-turboprop, short takeoff and landing (STOL) utility aircraft originally designed and manufactured by Dornier GmbH in Germany, with later production under license by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) in India. It is widely used for both civilian and military applications, including passenger transport, cargo, surveillance, and maritime patrol.
II is not correctly matched - The Ilyushin Il-76 is a four-engine, heavy-lift, strategic airlifter developed by the Soviet Union’s Ilyushin design bureau. First flown in 1971 and entering service in 1975, the Il-76 was designed primarily for military transport, but it is also widely used for civilian cargo, firefighting, and humanitarian aid operations. It is not a Supersonic combat aircraft.
III is correctly matched - The C-17 Globemaster III is a large, strategic and tactical military transport aircraft developed by McDonnell Douglas (now Boeing) for the United States Air Force and several allied nations. It is designed for rapid strategic airlift of troops and cargo to main operating bases or forward operating bases, and is capable of carrying oversized loads, vehicles, and even helicopters.

Subject: Current Affairs
Source: https://www.hal-india.co.in | https://www.aircharterservice.co.kr | https://www.airforce.gov.au | https://www.thehindu.com
Difficulty: Medium

65. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of:

(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
(b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide
(c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate
(d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Answer: a

Explanation: Artificial rainfall, also known as cloud seeding, is a weather modification technique used to induce precipitation. Silver iodide (AgI) and potassium iodide (KI) are commonly used as ice nuclei to encourage the formation of raindrops in clouds. These substances help water vapor condense and freeze, leading to precipitation, which can wash pollutants out of the atmosphere and improve air quality.

Subject: Environment/Current Affairs
Sources: https://indianexpress.com
Difficulty: Easy

66. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II Correct

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement I: The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. Correct. The Supreme Court has held that while the President's decision to grant a pardon is generally not open to judicial scrutiny, courts can intervene if the exercise of this power is found to be arbitrary, irrational, or made in bad faith.
Statement II: The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. Incorrect. Article 74(1) of the Constitution mandates that the President shall act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: M. Laxmikanth
Difficulty: Easy

67. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
Statement II: According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
Statement III: The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. According to Article 94(1) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker does not vacate office immediately on dissolution of the Lok Sabha but continues until just before the new Lok Sabha meets.
Statement II is incorrect. The Constitution does not mandate the Speaker to resign from their political party. However, by convention and to maintain impartiality, the Speaker generally disassociates from active politics, but resignation from the party is not a constitutional requirement. \
Statement III is correct. The House of People can remove the Speaker through a resolution with notice of 14 days, passed by an effective majority (more than 50% of the effective strength (total strength-vacancies) of the house present and voting) as per Articles 94 of the Indian Constitution.

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: Laxmikanth , Bare Act , UPSC PYQ
Difficulty: Easy

68. Consider the following statements:

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II Correct

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement I: Disqualification under the 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) is decided by the Presiding Officer (Speaker for Lok Sabha, Chairman for Rajya Sabha). The President’s role applies to disqualification under Article 102 (other than defection) based on the Election Commission’s opinion. Hence, Statement I is incorrect.
Statement II: The term “political party” is included in the Constitution through the 52nd Amendment Act (1985), which introduced the 10th Schedule. Thus, Statement II is incorrect.

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: Laxmikanth, Bare Act.
Difficulty: Medium

Q 69. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect: State Governments in India do have the power to make rules regarding the grant of concessions for minor mineral extraction, even if the minerals are located within their territories. Section 15 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 explicitly grants them this authority.
Statement II is correct: Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, 1957 defines "minor minerals" as building stones, kankar, and ordinary clay used for making bricks, ordinary sand used for any purpose, and any other mineral which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare to be a minor mineral.

Subject: Geography/Economy
Source: https://ibm.gov.in
Difficulty: Hard

70. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

(a) The European Union
(b) The World Bank (c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

Answer: a

Explanation:

The Nature Restoration Law is a comprehensive regulation adopted by the European Union to restore degraded ecosystems, address climate change, and halt biodiversity loss across EU member states.
It sets legally binding targets to restore at least 20% of the EU’s degraded land and sea areas by 2030, with the goal of restoring all ecosystems in need by 2050.
It aims to halt biodiversity loss, improve ecosystem health, and support climate change mitigation and adaptation across member states.

Subject: Environment and Ecology
Source: https://environment.ec.europa.eu
Difficulty: Medium

71. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹ 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹ 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹ 10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹ 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Revenue deficit is ₹ 20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is ₹ 10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is ₹ 4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I, II and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: d

Explanation:

Subject: Indian Economy
Source: Indian Economy Handbook
Difficulty: Easy

72. India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
(b) India to Central Asia via China
(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan

Answer: a

Explanation:

The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a 7,200-kilometer-long multimodal transportation network connecting the Indian Ocean and Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Iran, and onward to northern and western Europe, primarily through Russia.
It integrates ship, rail, and road routes to facilitate the movement of freight among India, Iran, Azerbaijan, Russia, Central Asia, and Europe.

Subject: Current Affairs
Source: https://www.thehindu.com
Difficulty: Easy

73. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Answer: c

Explanation:

Subject: Economy/Environment
Source: https://afdc.energy.gov/data
Difficulty: Hard

74. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: High wet-bulb temperatures provide more moisture and energy for cyclones to develop and intensify. The warm, humid air in the tropics fuels the storm, making it more likely to form and grow. Increased humidity and higher wet-bulb temperatures can lead to more intense cyclones with higher wind speeds and heavier rainfall, potentially resulting in more significant damage and flooding.
Statement II is correct: Wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity, making it difficult for the body to cool itself through perspiration. When wet-bulb temperatures exceed 35°C, even in the shade with access to water, the body cannot regulate heat, leading to heatstroke and potential fatality

Subject: Environment
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com
Difficulty: Medium

75. A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹ 50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹ 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹ 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

(a) ₹ 48,500 crores
(b) ₹ 51,500 crores
(c) ₹ 58,500 crores
(d) None of the above

Answer: a

Explanation:

Subject: Indian Economy
Source: Indian Economy Handbook
Difficulty: Medium

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Questions 76 to 100

76. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

I. It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV

Answer: c

Explanation:

Subject: Economy/Polity
Source: https://prsindia.org
Difficulty: Hard

77. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: c

Explanation:

Subject: Economy
Source: Indian Economy Handbook
Difficulty: Easy

78. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) III only

Answer: a

Explanation:

I: Correct — RTGS settles instantly; NEFT settles in batches.
II: Incorrect — No charges on inward transactions for both.
III: Incorrect — Both operate almost round-the-clock now.

Subject: Indian Economy
Source: https://retail.onlinesbi.sbi
Difficulty: Medium

79. Consider the following countries:

I. United Arab Emirates
II. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five

Answer: b

Explanation:

Subject: Current Affairs/ Economy
Source: https://www.npci.org.in
Difficulty: Medium

80. Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:

I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and upskilling, under scheme component of capacity building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana aims to install one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
Statement II is correct: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is actively working to train individuals in the installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of solar rooftop systems at the grassroots level.
Statement III is correct: The scheme aims to create more than three lakh skilled manpower through fresh skilling and upskilling, as part of its capacity-building component.

Subject: Current Affairs/ Economy
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in
Difficulty: Medium

81. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: c

Explanation

Statement I: An ordinance can amend any Central Act. This is correct because the President’s ordinance power is as broad as Parliament’s law-making power, allowing modification or repeal of existing Acts or ordinances. The Supreme Court recognises ordinances as having legislative force until replaced or invalidated.
Statement II: An ordinance can abridge Fundamental Rights. This is incorrect. Ordinances are subject to constitutional limits, including Article 13(2), which prohibits laws that infringe Fundamental Rights. Ordinances violating these rights are void.
Statement III: An ordinance can have a retrospective effect.

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: Indian Polity By Laxmikanth
Difficulty: Easy

82. Consider the following pairs:

State	Description
Arunachal Pradesh	The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
Nagaland	The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
Tripura	Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: c

Explanation:

Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – The capital, Itanagar, is named after the Ita Fort, and the state has two national parks, making this pair correct.
Pair II: Nagaland – Nagaland's creation was based on a constitutional amendment, making this pair correct. It became the 16th state through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962 and the Constitution (13th Amendment) Act, 1962, which added Article 371A, granting special status.
Pair III: Tripura – Initially a Part 'C' state, Tripura became a Union Territory in 1956 and gained full statehood in 1972. This pair is also correct.

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: Laxmikanth, Random GK Website
Difficulty: Medium

83. With reference to India, consider the following:

I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: a

Explanation:

I. The Inter-State Council: Established under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution, the Inter-State Council is a constitutional body. It was constituted by a Presidential Order on May 28, 1990, following the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations. Its purpose is to promote coordination between states and between the Centre and states on matters of common interest. Therefore, this body is constitutionally mandated.
II. The National Security Council: The National Security Council (NSC) was established in 1998 through a Cabinet Resolution, not by a constitutional provision. It serves as an executive body advising the Prime Minister on matters of national security and foreign policy. Since it was not established by the Constitution, it is not a constitutional body
III. Zonal Councils: The Zonal Councils were established by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, which is a statutory (not constitutional) provision. These councils are advisory bodies intended to foster cooperation among states and between the Centre and states. They are not constitutionally mandated bodies.

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: Laxmikanth | interstatecouncil.gov.in | nsc.gov.in | mha.gov.in
Difficulty: Medium

84. Consider the following statements:

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II Correct

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement I is Correct. Article 163(1) of the Indian Constitution states that the Governor shall act according to the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except in matters where the Constitution requires him to act in his discretion.
Statement II is Incorrect. According to Article 201 of the Constitution, the Governor of a State may reserve a bill for the consideration of the President. The President cannot reserve a bill directly; it must be forwarded to them by the Governor

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: Laxmikanth, Bare Act
Difficulty: Medium

85. Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India	Stated under
Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State	The Directive Principles of the State Policy
Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture	The Fundamental Duties
Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories	The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: c

Explanation:

Pair I: Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State – The Directive Principles of State Policy. This pair is correctly matched. Article 50, which is part of Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy), mandates that the state shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services.
Pair II: Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture – The Fundamental Duties. This pair is correctly matched. Article 51A(f), under Part IVA (Fundamental Duties), makes it the duty of every citizen of India to value and preserve the rich heritage of the nation's composite culture.
Pair III: Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories – The Fundamental Rights. This pair is correctly matched. Article 24, under Part III (Fundamental Rights), specifically prohibits the employment of children under the age of 14 in factories, mines, or any hazardous work.

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: Laxmikanth
Difficulty: Easy

86. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule—
I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement I is Incorrect. According to Paragraph 2 of the Fifth Schedule, the executive power of a State extends to its Scheduled Areas.
- While the Governor has special responsibilities, the State Government retains its executive authority.
- The Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA), empowers Gram Sabhas with significant self-governance functions, but this does not equate to the State Government losing its executive power or a local body assuming total administration.
Statement II is Incorrect. Paragraph 3 of the Fifth Schedule allows the Union Government to give directions to the State regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas.
- However, it does not provide for the Union Government to take over the total administration of such areas based solely on the recommendations of the Governor.
- This provision is distinct from the general emergency provisions like Article 356 (President's Rule), which allows the President to assume control over the entire State government under specific circumstances.

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: Laxmikanth, Bare Act
Difficulty: Medium

87. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Organization	Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board	Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information	Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: d

Explanation:

The National Automotive Board – Ministry of Commerce and Industry Incorrect. The National Automotive Board is under the Ministry of Heavy Industries. It serves as the operating agency for the implementation of the FAME India Scheme and handles matters related to the automotive sector, such as testing, certification, and homologation.
The Coir Board – Ministry of Heavy Industries Incorrect. The Coir Board is a statutory body under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME). It focuses on the promotion and development of the coir industry, including export promotion and expansion of the domestic market.
The National Centre for Trade Information – Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Incorrect. The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It serves as an institutional mechanism for the collection and dissemination of trade data and for improving business information services.

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: Laxmikanth | https://heavyindustries.gov.in | https://www.commerce.gov.in
Difficulty: Difficult

88. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

I. List I—Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: a

Explanation:

List I—Union List, in the Seventh Schedule: Amendments to the Union List require ratification by at least half of the State legislatures. This is because changes to the Union List impact the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States. Therefore, this statement is correct.
Extent of the executive power of a State: Amendments affecting the extent of the executive power of a State (Article 162) require ratification by at least half of the State legislatures. This is because such changes pertain to the federal structure and the distribution of powers. Therefore, this statement is correct.
Conditions of the Governor’s office: Amendments to the provisions related to the Governor's office (Articles 154–162) do not require ratification by the State legislatures. These provisions are not considered part of the federal structure that necessitates state ratification. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: Laxmikanth, Bare Act
Difficulty: Medium

89. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III only

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement I is Correct. Article 361(1) of the Constitution provides that the President or the Governor of a State shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office or for any act done or purporting to be done by them in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.
Statement II is Correct. Article 361(2) explicitly states that no criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the President or the Governor of a State in any court during their term of office.
Statement III is Correct. Article 194(2) of the Constitution grants members of the Legislature of a State immunity from legal proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by them in the Legislature or any committee thereof.

Subject: Indian Polity
Source: Laxmikanth, Bare Act
Difficulty: Medium

90. Consider the following activities:

I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: b

Explanation:

Subject: Indian Economy
Source: https://pngrb.gov.in
Difficulty: Hard

91. "Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

(a) the Champaran Satyagraha
(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
(c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement

Answer: b

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi made the statement "Sedition has become my religion" during the Salt Satyagraha (Dandi March) in 1930. This was a direct act of civil disobedience against British rule, where Gandhi and his followers openly defied the Salt Law by making salt from seawater. The British considered such defiance as seditious, but Gandhi framed it as a moral and spiritual duty to resist unjust laws.

Subject: Modern Indian History
Source: https://www.governancenow.com
Difficulty: Medium

92. The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

(a) carnelian
(b) clay
(c) bronze
(d) gold

Answer: c

Explanation: The Dancing Girl figurine is one of the most famous and iconic artefacts of the Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC), also known as the Harappan Civilisation. It was discovered in 1926 by archaeologist Ernest Mackay at Mohenjo-Daro, one of the largest and most advanced urban settlements of the ancient world. The figurine is made of bronze and was sculpted using the lost wax technique.

Subject: (Ancient Indian History)
Source: (Old NCERT Class 11th/R.S. Sharma) and UPSCprep Class Notes
Difficulty: Easy

93. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

(a) C. R. Das
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
(d) M. A. Jinnah

Answer: b

Explanation:

Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant provided the legal defense for those arrested in the aftermath of the Chauri Chaura incident.
They took up the case of the accused, many of whom had initially been sentenced to death or long prison terms by the British colonial authorities.
Their efforts in the legal appeals resulted in a significant reduction in the number of death sentences, with only 19 ultimately executed after the Allahabad High Court's review.
Also, a movie was released in 2023 with the name ‘1922 Pratikaar Chauri Chaura’ which shows the role of MM Malviya.

Subject: Modern Indian History
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in
Difficulty: Hard

94: Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme?

(a) The Poona Pact
(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: a

Explanation:

The Poona Pact of 1932 was a crucial agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar regarding the political representation of the Depressed Classes (Dalits).
Gandhi strongly opposed the British government's Communal Award, which proposed separate electorates for Dalits. He believed it would divide Hindu society.
To protest, Gandhi undertook a fast unto death while imprisoned in Yerwada Jail. The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932, ensuring reserved seats for Dalits within the general electorate instead of separate electorates.
Following this, Gandhi intensified his efforts for Harijan upliftment, founding the Harijan Sevak Sangh to work for the eradication of untouchability

Subject: Modern Indian History
Source: NCERT | UPSCprep Class Notes | https://indianexpress.com | https://frontline.thehindu.com
Difficulty: Easy

95: Consider the following fruits:

I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: c

Explanation:

Papaya was introduced to India by the Portuguese during the 16th and 17th centuries, along with other American crops.
Pineapple was brought from Brazil to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century, and its cultivation spread rapidly.
Guava was also introduced by the Portuguese and became widely accepted in Indian agriculture and food culture

Subject: Modern Indian History
Source: https://ripublication.com | NCERT
Difficulty: Hard

96. Consider the following countries:

I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
(a) All the five
(b) Only four
(c) Only three
(d) Only two

Answer: b

Explanation: UK has 9 time zones, Denmark has 5 time zones, New Zealand has 5 time zones, Australia has 9 time zones and Brazil has 4 time zones.

Subject: Geography
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org
Difficulty: Hard

97. Consider the following statements:

I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (USA) are geographically close, separated by the Bering Strait, but they lie on opposite sides of the International Date Line (IDL). This means that when people wake up in one city, it could be a different calendar day in the other.
Statement II is incorrect: Since Anadyr is ahead of Nome in time, if it is Monday in Anadyr, it would still be Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday.

Subject: Geography
Source: Maps, NCERT
Difficulty: Easy

98. Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?

(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav
(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

Answer: a

Explanation: The Self-Respect Movement was founded in 1925 by S. Ramanathan, who later invited E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar) to lead it. Periyar played a crucial role in shaping the movement, advocating for social equality, rationalism, and the abolition of caste-based discrimination.

Subject: Modern Indian History
Source: NCERT Class VIII Our Pasts III | https://indianexpress.com | https://www.thehindu.com
Difficulty: Easy

99. Consider the following pairs:

Country	Resource-rich in
I. Botswana	Diamond
II. Chile	Lithium
III. Indonesia	Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: c

Explanation:

Botswana – Diamond: Botswana is one of the world's leading producers of diamonds, with major mines like Jwaneng and Orapa contributing significantly to its economy.
Chile – Lithium: Chile holds some of the largest lithium reserves globally, particularly in the Atacama Desert, making it a key player in lithium production.
Indonesia – Nickel: Indonesia is a major producer of nickel, with vast reserves that are crucial for stainless steel and battery production.