UPSC Previous Year Questions (GS)

UPSC Previous Year Questions (GS)

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UPSC Previous Year Questions | PYQs | General Studies | GS | CSAT

Day 1 - (23 April 2024)

Environment

Q.1 If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record', what does it imply?
(2014)

(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference

(b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilometers from the edge of the wetland.

(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed.

(d) It is given the status of World Heritage Site’

Solution: (a)

  • The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of pollution, technological developments or other human interferences. 
  • The Convention on Wetlands, called the Ramsar Convention, is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
  • The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975.

Q.2 What is the significance of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as 'Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative'?   (2014)

  1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
  2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.
  3. There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
  4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
  • Statement 2 is correct. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this as it results in efficient water use by water-saving strategy.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. This method promotes organic farming but there is reduced and efficient use of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers rather than total elimination of chemical/inorganic fertilizers.
  • Statement 4 is correct. The method takes less space due to the reduced plant population, which gives ample space for intercropping. 

Q.3  With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements : (2014)

  1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
  2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.
  3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (c)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Bombay Natural History Society is one of the largest non-governmental organizations in India engaged in conservation and biodiversity research.
  • Statement 2 is correct. Its mission includes conservation of nature, primarily biological diversity through action based on research, education, and public awareness.
  • Statement 3 is correct. It also organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public and supports research efforts through grants and publishes the Journal of the Bombay Natural History Society.

Q.4  With reference to ’Global Environment Facility', which of the following statements is/are correct? 2014

(a) It serves as a financial mechanism for ’Convention on Biological Diversity' and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’.

(b) lt undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level.

(c) lt is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment.

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Solution: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct. The Global Environment Facility serves as the financial mechanism for the `Convention on Biological Diversity` and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
  • Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. It does not undertake scientific research on environmental issues at the global level. It is not an agency under OECD but is an independent international financial organization.

Q.5 With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to the Ramsar Convention.
  2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both
(d) None

Solution: (b)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Wetlands International is a global organization aimed at sustaining and restoring wetlands and their resources. It is an independent, not-for-profit, global organization, supported by government and NGO membership from around the world.
  • Statement 2 is correct. Wetlands International works in areas like research, advocacy with governments, community-based field projects, international policy etc.

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Day 2 - (24 April 2024)

History

Q.6 The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until- (2014)

(a) the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended.

(b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911.

(c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement.

(d) The Partition of India in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan.

Solution: (b)

  • The partition of Bengal was annulled in 1911 at the Royal Durbar in Delhi when King George V visited India during Viceroy Lord Hardinge.
  • It was done in response to the Swadeshi movement and other activities of the freedom fighters.


Q.7 With reference to India's culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?
(2014)

(a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India.

(b) It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in the southern part of the Coromandel area.

(c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar.

(d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India.

Solution: (d)

  • Kalaripayattu is a martial art that originated in Kerala during the 3rd century BC to the 2nd century AD.
  • 'Kalari' is a Malayalam word meaning a kind of gymnasium or a battlefield. The word Kalari first appears in Tamil Sangam literature.

Q.8 The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a-  (2014)

(a) Revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco.

(b) Nationalist organization operating from Singapore.

(c) Militant organization with headquarters at Berlin.

(d) Communist movement for India's freedom with headquarters at Tashkent.

Solution: (a)

  • The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary organization, initially named the Pacific Coast Hindustan Association.
  • It was formed in July 1913 in the United States by Lala Har Dayal, Baba Wasakha Singh Dadehar, Baba Jawala Singh, Santokh Singh and Sohan Singh Bhakna.
  • The Ghadar Party was headquartered at San Francisco, USA.

Q.9 What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)? 

  1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States.
  2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown.
  3. To regulate East lndia Company's trade with India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (2014)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct. Any intention to annex Indian States was done away with to avoid further alienation of Indians.
  • Statement 2 is correct. Indian territories of Britain were to be governed in the name of the British Queen and the post of Court of Directors and the Board of Control were scrapped.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The proclamation liquidated East lndia Company and not regulated its trade with India.

Q.10 Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was- (2014)

(a) the mosque for the use of the Royal Family.

(b) Akbar’s private prayer chamber.

(c) The hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions,

(d) The room in which the nobles belonging to different religions gathered to discuss religious affairs.

Solution: (c)

  • Ibadat Khana or the House of Worship was a meeting house built in 1575 CE by the Mughal emperor Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri.
  • It was to gather different religious and spiritual leaders to conduct a discussion and debates on their respective teachings.


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Day 3 - (25 April 2024)

Geography

Q.1 Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

  1. Continental drift.
  2. Glacial cycles

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
(2014)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c)

  • Both options are correct.
  • Continental drift theory deals with distribution of the oceans and the continents.
    • When Pangaea split into two large continental masses, and when Laurasia and Gondwanaland continued to break into smaller continents, the drift must have moved some flora and fauna from one continent to others which must have influenced the evolution
  • Impact on evolution due to Glacial cycles and rise in sea level might have been in the form of extreme cold resulting in extinction of few species.

Q.2 Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ten Degree Channel? (2014)

(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Nicobar and Sumatra
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
(d) Sumatra and Java

Solution: (a)

  • As seen in the map, option a is correct.

 Q.3 Consider the following rivers- 

  1. Barak
  2. Lohit
  3. Subansiri

Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh? (2014)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (b)

  • Lohit and Subansiri flows through Arunachal Pradesh.
  • The Barak River flows through the states of Manipur, Mizoram and Assam in India and then into Bangladesh where it bifurcates into the Surma and Kushiyara river.
Indian Rivers  - Barak Lohit Subansiri - UPSC Pyqs solved

Q.4 The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of- (2014)

(a) Equatorial climate
(b) Mediterranean climate
(c) Monsoon climate
(d) All of the above climates

Solution: (c)

  • Seasonal reversal of winds is seen in Monsoon climate as South East trade winds are deflected by coriolis force to their right and enter India as South West monsoon winds.
  • Also, when pressure belts reverse during winters, these winds flow as North East Monsoon winds also known as retreating monsoons.
  • Equatorial climate is characterized by daily convection currents and evening rainfall and Mediterranean climate is impacted by local factors rather than seasonal.
The climate of southern and SE Asia is dominated by monsoon winds | South West Monsoon | UPSC PYQs Solved

Q.5 Consider the following pairs:

Hills Region

  1. Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast
  2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast
  3. Mahadeo Hills : Central India
  4. Mikir Hills : North-East India

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(2014)

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

Solution: (c)

  • Kaimur hills are part of the eastern portion of the Vindhya Range and lie in Madhya Pradesh.
  • Cardamom hills or Yela Mala mountain range is part of the southern Western Ghats and hence no along the Coromandel coast.
Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast | Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast | Mahadeo Hills : Central India | Mikir Hills : North-East India | UPSC PYQs Solved

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Day 4 - (26 April 2024)

Polity

Q.1 Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
(2014)

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The Committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions

Solution: (b)

  • Estimates Committee is a standing committee of the Parliament with 30 members exclusively from the Lok Sabha.
  • Members are elected every year according to proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
  • No minister can be a member of the estimates committee.

Q.2 Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection ? (2014)

(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule

Solution: (d)

  • Anti-defection Law was enacted through the 52nd Amendment Act 1985 as part of the Tenth Schedule with the objective of discouraging defection by imposing penalties. 

Q.3 In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the
(2014)

(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule

Solution: (b)

  • The Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV of the Indian constitution has Article 51 which gives directives to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honorable relations between nations.

Q.4 Which of the following is/are the function/ functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

  1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
  2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
  3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(2014)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1  and 2 only
(d) 1 , 2 and 3

Solution: (c)

  • Statement 3 is incorrect as it is not the function of cabinet secretariat.
  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
  • Functions of the Cabinet Secretariat include preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings, secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees, monitoring implementation of decisions taken by the Cabinet and its Committees, management of major crisis situations in the country, approval for Senior-Level Appointments etc. 

Q.5 Consider the following statements: 

A Constitutional Government is one which

  1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority.
  2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(2014)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b)

  • Constitutional Government places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.
  • It does not place restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority. 

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Day 5 - (27 April 2024)

Economy

Q.1 The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a-
(2014)

(a) tax imposed by the Central Government.
(b) tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government.
(c) tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government
(d) tax imposed and collected by the State Government.

Solution: (d)

  • Taxes on toothpaste come under GST which is administered by the State government.
  • Sales tax is paid to the sales tax authority in the state from where the goods are moved.

Q.2 What does venture capital mean?
(2014)

(a) A short-term capital provided to industries.
(b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs.
(c) Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses.
(d) Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries.

Solution: (b)

  • Entrepreneurs require capital to launch business which is in the form of Venture Capital.
  • It is the investment or capital that these entrepreneurs obtain from affluent investors.
  • These investments are extremely high-risk high-reward types of investments.

Q.3 The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is-
(2014)

(a) Inclusive growth and poverty reduction.
(b) Inclusive and sustainable growth.
(c) Sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment.
(d) Faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.

Solution: (d)

  • The twelfth Five Year Plan focussed on growth which is Faster, Inclusive and Sustainable
  • There were 25 Core Monitorable Targets of the 12th Five Year Plan which spanned from 2012 to 2017.

Q.4 With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes /constitute the Current Account? (2014)

  1. Balance of trade
  2. Foreign assets
  3. Balance of invisibles
  4. Special Drawing Rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 , 2 and 4

Solution: (c) 

  • Current account monitors flow of money from trade of goods and services (import and export).
  • This includes revenue from tourism, revenue from stocks, transportation receipts, money received or spent on manufactured goods and raw materials, revenue from specialized services and royalties from patents and copyrights.
  • Thus constituents of Current Account with respect to Balance of Payments include Balance of trade and Balance of invisibles, and not Foreign assets and Special Drawing Rights.

Q.5 The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to-
(2014)

(a) Banking operations
(b) Communication networking
(c) Military strategies
(d) Supply and demand of agricultural products

Solution: (a)

  • Marginal Standing Facility is the rate at which banks can borrow overnight funds from the RBI in exchange for authorized government securities in situations when interbank liquidity dries up completely and results in volatility.
  • The Net Demand and Time Liabilities refers to the aggregate savings account, current account, and fixed deposit balances held by a bank.


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Day 6 - (29 April 2024)

Art & Culture

Q.1 Consider the following languages

  1. Gujarati
  2. Kannada
  3. Telugu

Which of the above has/have been declared as 'Classical Language/Languages' by the Government? (2014)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

 Solution: (c)

  • There are six ‘Classical’ languages in India, namely Tamil, Telugu, Sanskrit, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia, and they are listed in the 8th Schedule.
  • Thus, Gujarati is not a classical language of India.

Q.2 With reference to the cultural history of India, the term 'Panchayatan’ refers to- (2014)

(a) An assembly of village elders
(b) A religious sect
(c) A style of temple construction
(d) An administrative functionary 

Solution: (c)

  • Panchayatana is a style of temple architecture where the main shrine is seated on a rectangular plinth along with four subsidiary shrines at the four corners.
  • This gives it the name Panchayatana due to a total of 5 shrines.

Q.3 Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy? (2014)

(a) Mimamsa and Vedanta 
(b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika 
(c) Lokayata and Kapalika
(d) Sankhya and Yoga

Solution: (c)

  • Six systems of Indian philosophy include Vaisheshika, Nyaya, Samkhya, Yoga, Mimansa and Vedanta.
  • These are said to have been founded by sages Konada, Gotama, Kapila, Patanjali, Jaimini and Vyasa respectively. 

Q.4 Consider the following towns of India- 

  1. Bhadrachalam
  2. Chanderi
  3. Kancheepuram
  4. Karnal

Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees /fabric? (2014)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Solution: (c)

  • Bhadrachalam in Telangana is famous for traditional silk sarees. Chanderi in Madhya Pradesh is famous for traditional Chanderi sarees which have lightweight and delicate embroidery.
  • Kancheepuram in Tamil Nadu is famous for rich and intricate Kancheepuram silk sarees.

Q.5 A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their- (2014)

(a) Martial arts in North-East India
(b) Musical tradition in North-West lndia
(c) Classical vocal music in South lndia
(d) Pietra dura tradition in Central India

Solution: (b)

  • Manganiyars are a Muslim musician community residing in western Rajasthan’s Jaisalmer and Barmer districts and are also found in Pakistan.
  • Their music was supported by wealthy landlords and merchants before Independence, and they performed in languages and dialects like Marwari, Sindhi, Saraiki, Dhatti and Thareli.

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Day 7 - (30 April 2024)

International relations

Q.1 With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

  1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
  2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (2014)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 Solution: (b)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The inaugural BRIC summit took place in Yekaterinburg, Russia on June 16, 2009 when South Africa was not a part of the organization.
  • Statement 2 is correct. South Africa was the last country to join BRIC after which it became 'BRICS'.
Brics summit: Is a new bloc emerging to rival US leadership? | UPSC PRELIMS

Q.2 Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as 'Arab Spring’ originally started from- (2014)

(a) Egypt
(b) Lebanon
(c) Syria
(d) Tunisia

Solution: (d)

  • The Arab Spring was a pro-democracy uprising in largely Muslim countries, including Tunisia, Morocco, Syria, Libya, Egypt and Bahrain.
  • The protests first broke out in Tunisia in late 2010 and spread to other countries.
Arab Spring - 2010-2011 | UPSC | International Relations

Q.3 Consider the following countries- (2014)

  1. Denmark
  2. Japan
  3. Russian Federation
  4. United Kingdom
  5. United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the 'Arctic Council'

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 5

Solution: (d)

  • Eight countries have sovereignty over the lands within the Arctic Circle, and these are the member states of the council.
  • It includes Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden and the United States.

Q.4 Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’? (2014)

(a) IMF 
(b) UNDP
(c) WEF
(d) World Bank

Solution: (a)

  • IMF released its World Economic Outlook 2023 titled- Navigating Global Divergence, which stated that the Indian Economy will grow faster than previously estimated.
  • It gives indicators on Global Growth Forecasts and Inflation and Monetary Policy.

Q.5  Consider the following pairs- (2014)

Region in news Country 

  1. Chechnya Russian Federation
  2. Darfur Mali
  3. Swat Valley Iraq

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (a)

  • Darfur is a region in western Sudan and Swat Valley is in Pakistan.
  • An ancient rock carving of the Buddha was blown up by the Taliban as they overran Pakistan’s Swat valley a decade ago.
  • Chechnya is a republic of Russia situated in the North Caucasus of Eastern Europe. Thus only option 1 is correct.

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Day 8 - (1 May 2024)

Science & Technology

Q.1 Consider the following techniques / phenomena- (CSE 2014)

  1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
  2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
  3. Gene silencing

Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

Solution: (b)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Budding and grafting is the act of placing a bud or scion into a stem, root, or branch of another stock which does not lead to any genetic modification.
Budding and Grafting | UPSC
  • Statement 2 is correct. Cytoplasmic male sterility is for hybrid breeding to prevent total or partial male sterility in plants, by using specific nuclear and mitochondrial interactions.
  • Statement 3 is correct. Gene silencing is done using RNA interference technology to induce transcriptional gene silencing and virus-induced gene silencing.
Transgenic Plants | UPSC

Q.2 Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of the other three? (CSE 2014)

(a) Crab
(b) Mite
(c) Scorpion
(d) Spider

Solution: (a)

  • Mite, Scorpion, and Spider are Arachnids.
  • While Crab is a Crustacean.

Q.3 Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change? (CSE 2014)

  1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
  2. Melting of ice
  3. Souring of milk

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Solution: (b)

  • Crystallization of sodium chloride and Melting of ice are physical changes as there is no change in chemical composition.
  • While souring of milk can be reversed and it is a chemical change.

Q.4  Consider the following statements-  (CSE 2014)

  1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
  2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
  3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (d)

  • All statements are correct.
  • Maize starch is produced by grinding of softened maize and separation of corn oil seeds, gluten, fibers and final outcome being pure starch.
  • Biodiesel fuel can be produced by transesterification of fat or oil triacylglycerols. Corn biodiesel is a mixture of long-chain fatty acid methyl esters (FAMEs).
  • The alcohol in alcoholic drinks is ethanol which can be extracted from grains, fruits, or vegetables through fermentation.

 Q.5  In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?  (CSE 2014)

  1. Iris scanning
  2. Retinal scanning
  3. Voice recognition

 Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (d)

  • Biometric identification helps identify a person and some examples of biometric security are Voice Recognition, Fingerprint Scanning, Facial Recognition, Iris Recognition and Heart-Rate Sensors.
Biometrics (facts, use cases, biometric security)

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Day 9 - (2 May 2024)

Environment

Q.1 Consider the following statements: (CSE 2014) 

  1. Animal Welfare Board of India was established under the Environment Protection Act, 1980.
  2. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
  3. The National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (b)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Animal Welfare Board has been established under Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Acts 1960 and not the Environment Protection Act, 1980.
  • Statements 2 & 3 are correct. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change.
  • The National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Q.2 With reference to to-Sensitive Zones‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? (CSE 2014)

  1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (d)

  • Both Statements are incorrect. Eco-sensitive zones are ecologically fragile areas within 10 km around protected areas to act as a buffer, and are notified under the Environment Protection Act, 1980.
  • Certain activities like agriculture, horticulture, organic farming, rainwater harvesting, tourism, etc. are permitted in the Eco-sensitive zones.

Q.3 Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’:
(CSE 2014)

  1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
  2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
  3. It is a movement to raise awareness about climate change and the need to save the planet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (c)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Earth Hour is an initiative of the World Wildlife Fund for Nature that began in 2007.
  • Statements 2 & 3 are correct. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year. It is based on the idea of refraining from the use of non-essential lighting to save energy symbolically. 
  • It is a movement to raise awareness about climate change and the need to save the planet.

Q.4 What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’? (CSE 2014)

  1. Prevention of soil runoff.
  2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers.
  3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table.
  4. Regeneration of natural vegetation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Solution: (c)

  • Statements 1, 3 & 4 are correct.
  • The Integrated Watershed Management Programme is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Rural Development.
  • Its objectives include restoration of ecological balance by conserving soil and vegetative cover.
  • The outcomes are prevention of soil runoff, regeneration of natural vegetation and rain water harvesting.

Q.5 The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of-
(CSE 2014)

(a) Biosphere reserves
(b) Botanical gardens
(c) National parks
(d) Wildlife sanctuaries

Solution: (a)

  • Biosphere reserves help conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life as they protect larger areas of natural habitat. 

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Day 10 - (3 May 2024)

History

Q.1 Consider the following statements:  (CSE 2014) 

  1. ‘Bijak' is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.
  2. The Philosophy of PushtiMarg was propounded by Madhvacharya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?’

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (d)

  • Both the statements are incorrect.
  • Bijak is a popular compilation of the teachings of Kabir and not of Dadu Dayal. And the philosophy of Pushti Marg (The path of Grace) was propounded by Vallabhacharya while Madhavacharya propounded Dvaita or dualism. 

Q.2 The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the- (CSE 2014)

(a) Attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress.

(b) The attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress.

(c) A Non-Cooperation Movement was launched.

(d) A decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken.

Solution: (b)

  • The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress held at Lahore on the banks of Ravi river is significant because the attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress.

Q.3 Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha? (CSE 2014)

  1. Avanti
  2. Gandhara
  3. Kosala
  4. Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Solution: (c)

  • Avanti can be eliminated as it was not directly related to the life of Buddha.
  • Prasenajit, king of Kosala, was Buddha’s contemporary. Also, Kosala and Magadha were linked through matrimonial ties.
  • Gandhara is not directly associated with the life of Buddha and received attention only after expansion of Mauryan empire under Ashoka.

Q.4 In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ’Pattakila' were used for- (CSE 2014)

(a) Military officers
(b) Village headmen
(c) Specialists in Vedic rituals 
(d) Chiefs of craft guilds

Solution: (b)

  • Mahattara and Pattaklla were designations used for village headmen in medieval India.
  • The Mahattara was the superior headman of the village, while the Pattaklla was the subordinate headman. 

Q.5 Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 366 days? (CSE 2014)

(a) 22nd March (or 21st March)
(b) 15th May (or 16th May)
(c) 31st March (or 30th March)
(d) 21st April (or 20th April)

Solution: (a)

  • Chaitra 1 is the first day of the Hindu lunar calendar, based on the Saka era.
  • The Saka era started in 78 AD and corresponds to the year when the Saka dynasty ruled present-day India.
  • Thus, the first day of Hindu lunar calendar, i.e., Chaitra 1 corresponds to 22 March of the Gregorian calendar.


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Day 11 - (4 May 2024)

Polity

Q.1 The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in- (CSE 2014)

(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) The Law Commission

Solution: (b)

  • The constitution of India authorizes the Parliament to make laws, organize jurisdiction and modify the powers of the Supreme Court of India.
  • The number of judges in the Supreme Court can be increased or decreased by the parliament by legislation.

Q.2 The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its- (CSE 2014)

(a) Advisory jurisdiction
(b) Appellate jurisdiction
(c) Original jurisdiction
(d) Writ jurisdiction

Solution: (c)

The Supreme Court of India has original jurisdiction in deciding the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. It includes the disputes between-

  • The Centre and one or more states; or
  • The Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or
  • Between two or more states.

Q.3 Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India-

  1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
  2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok 5abha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CSE 2014)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c)

  • Both statements are incorrect.
  • Article 75 says that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to Lok Sabha. Lok Sabha can remove them by passing a no confidence motion but the word “no confidence motion” is not mentioned in the Constitution.
    • It is found in rule 198 of Lok Sabha Rules. 
  • Rajya Sabha cannot pass or remove council of ministers by passing no-confidence motion because the council is not responsible to the Rajya Sabha.
    • No confidence motion can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.

Q.4 Consider the following statements-

  1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
  2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. (CSE 2014)

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct.
    • The “Conduct of Business of the Government of India” under Article 77 of the Constitution of India says that “The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business." 
  • Statement 2 is incorrect.
    • The Constitution of India mentions that “All executive action of the Government of India shall be taken in the name of the President.” 

Q.5 Which of the following are associated with Planning’ in India? (CSE 2014)

  1. The Finance Commission
  2. The National Development Council
  3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
  4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
  5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only 
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only 
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Solution: (c)

  • With respect to the Central Planning process, the Parliament is associated through policy making, scrutinizing and the MPLADS while NDC was part of the deliberative process.
  • Planning commission used to collaborate with the Finance Commission in planning but the latter was never associated with the planning process.
  • The Union Ministries given in the choices were never given seats in the Planning Commission.

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Day 12 - (6 May 2024)

Science and Technology

Q.1 Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use? (CSE 2014)

  1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
  2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct. Brominated flame retardants belong to a class of compounds called organohalogens and have an inhibitory effect on combustion chemistry.
    • This tends to reduce the flammability of products containing them making them highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
  • Statement 2 is correct. Some brominated flame retardants like hexabromocyclododecane persist and bioaccumulate in the environment, having toxic effects on organisms.

Q.2 Consider the following-

  1. Bats
  2. Bears
  3. Rodents

The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals? (CSE 2014)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above

Solution: (c)

  • Hibernation is winter sleep in which there is minimal activity and metabolism.
  • It is characterized by slow breathing and heart-rate, low body-temperature and low metabolic rate.
  • It is found in bats, bears, rodents etc.
Animals that Hibernate | UPSC

Q.3 Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? (CSE 2014)

  1. Volcanic action
  2. Respiration
  3. Photosynthesis
  4. Decay of organic matter

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (c)

  • Volcanic action, respiration and decomposition releases Carbon dioxide while the process of photosynthesis takes up carbon dioxide and releases oxygen. 
Carbon cycle - Met Office

Q.4 If you walk through the countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is/are such birds? (CSE 2014)

  1. Painted Stork
  2. Common Myna
  3. Black-necked Crane

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Solution: (b)

  • Common Myna is an omnivorous woodland bird which is an opportunistic feeder on insects.
  • Painted Stork is a fish-eating bird and does not feed on insects.
  • Black-necked Crane is found in the Trans-Himalayan region and is unlikely to be found while walking through the countryside.

Q.5 Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of- (CSE 2014)

(a) Algae and bacteria
(b) Algae and fungi
(c) Bacteria and fungi
(d) Fungi and mosses

Solution: (b)

  • Lichen is a composite organism arising from algae or cyanobacteria living among filaments of fungi in a mutualistic relationship, and playing an important role in nutrient cycling.

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Day 13 - (7 May 2024)

Environment 

Q.1 Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins? (CSE 2014)

  1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers.
  2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers.
  3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally.
  4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct. Construction of dams, irrigation projects etc make dolphins susceptible to inbreeding and more vulnerable to other threats 
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers is not the reason for decline in dolphin population.
  • Statement 3 is correct. Dolphins and people prefer river areas where fish is plentiful and the result is more dolphins getting caught in nets.
  • Statement 4 is correct. Agricultural pollution by humans is another cause of habitat degradation.

Q.2 Which of the following are some important pollutants released by the steel industry in India? (CSE 2014)

  1. Oxides of sulfur
  2. Oxides of nitrogen
  3. Carbon monoxide
  4. Carbon dioxide

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (d)

  • All are correct because steel production impacts the environment in the form of emissions like carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, nitrogen oxides and sulfur oxides which are hazardous for the environment.

Q.3 If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants are naturally growing there? (CSE 2014)

  1. Oak
  2. Rhododendron
  3. Sandalwood

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (a)

Exp: Oak and Rhododendron are characteristically found in

Temperate forests which are located in the middle altitudes of the Himalayas in India.

Sandalwood  is found in tropical deciduous forests or monsoon forests located in the Western Ghats, Deccan plateau and northern plains.


Q.4 With reference to two non- conventional energy sources called 'coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following statements- (CSE 2014)

  1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
  2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (d)

  • Both statements are incorrect. Coal bed methane is an unconventional gas found in coal deposits or coal seams and is called ‘sweet gas’ because of its lack of hydrogen sulfide.
  • Shale gas is a hydrocarbon gas mixture consisting mainly of methane and traces of other hydrocarbons like ethane, propane, and butane.

Q.5 In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following? 

  1. Terrace cultivation
  2. Deforestation
  3. Tropical climate (CSE 2014)

Select the correct answer using code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Solution: (b)

  • Terrace farming, contour plowing etc are ways to control soil erosion on steep slopes, hilly areas, and higher altitudes.
  • While tropical climate is a too generalistic reason for soil erosion. Thus deforestation is the only correct option.

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Day 14 - (8 May 2024)

Geography

Q.1 With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statements- (CSE 2014)

  1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
  2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool.
  3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (b)

  • Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect. Changpas are semi-nomadic Tibetan people found mainly in the Changtang region of Ladakh.
  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Changpas rear the highly prized Changra goats that yield the Pashmina fiber. Changpas were declared as the Scheduled Tribes in 1989. They speak Changs Khat, a Tibetan dialect and practice Tibetan Buddhism.
Changthang: Changpa nomads | UPSC

Q.2 Which of the following have coral reefs? (CSE 2014)

  1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  2. Gulf of Kachchh
  3. Gulf of Mannar
  4. Sunderbans

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (a)

  • Coral reefs are found in Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Mannar only.
  • They are not found in Sunderbans because of high siltation which affects coral polyp formation.

Q.3 Turkey is located between- (CSE 2014)

(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea 
(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea

Solution: (b)

  • Turkey is one of the few countries like Russia, geographically located in two continents.
  • Its smaller part is in Southeastern Europe and its larger part in Western Asia which is located between Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea.
Turkey is geographically located in two continents, and between the Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea | UPSC PYQs

Q.4 What is the correct sequence of occurrences of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north? (CSE 2014)

  1. Bangkok
  2. Hanoi
  3. Jakarta
  4. Singapore

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 4-2-1-3
(b) 3-2-4-1
(c) 3-4-1-2
(d) 4-3-2-1

Solution: (c)

  • Jakarta-Singapore-Bangkok-Hanoi is the correct sequence of these cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north.

Q.5 Consider the following pairs: (CSE 2014)

National Highway Cities connected

  1. NH 4 - Chennai and Hyderabad
  2. NH 6 - Mumbai and Kolkata
  3. NH 15 - Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 
(d) None 

Solution: (d)

  • All the pairs are incorrectly matched.

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Day 15 - (9 May 2024)

Economy

Q.1 With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure? (CSE 2014)

  1. Defence expenditure
  2. Interest payments
  3. Salaries and pensions
  4. Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None

Solution: (c)

  • Plan Expenditure is for activities focused on creating assets, including physical, human, and social.
  • Non-plan Expenditure is for maintenance activities and the upkeep of existing assets.
    • It includes interest payments, salaries, debt servicing, pension, defense expenditure and subsidies. 

Q.2 If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will- (CSE 2014)

(a) Decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy
(b) Increase the tax collection of the Government.
(c) Increase the investment expenditure in the economy.
(d) Increase the total savings in the economy.

Solution: (c)

  • A decrease in interest rate will increase the money supply, thus increasing the investment expenditure.
  • Low interest rates will nudge the banks to lend money to businesses.
  • Decreased interest rates will compel people to deposit less money in the banks since they would not get high returns.
  • This will result in more personal investment.  

Q.3 In the context of Indian economy, which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ’Statutory Reserve Requirements' (CSE 2014)

  1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create.
  2. To make the people's deposits with banks safe and liquid.
  3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits.
  4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct.
    • Statutory Reserve Requirement enables the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create or make.
    • Other objectives include repaying stakeholders during solvency of commercial banks, indicating the macroeconomic conditions and ensuring that the government has enough financial resources.
  • Statements 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect.
    • Making the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid, preventing the commercial banks from making excessive profits and forcing  the banks to have sufficient vault-cash to meet their day-to-day requirements are not the objectives of Statutory Reserve Requirement. 

Q.4 What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas? (CSE 2014)

  1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.
  2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c)

  • Statement 1 and 2 are correct. 
  • Bank Sathi or Business Correspondent scheme was started to ensure Financial Inclusion in rural areas enabling the poor to do banking even in places where there is no bank branch.
  • The scheme enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages and it also enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.

Q.5 In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider/greater implementation?

  1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
  2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.
  3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops. (CSE 2014)

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only 
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None

Solution: (b)

  • Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    • There is a National Seed Policy 2002. The private sector seed companies supply quality seeds of vegetables and they are a major supplier of hybrid vegetable seeds.
  • Statement 3 is correct.
    • There is a demand-supply gap of seeds in case of low value and high volume crops such as wheat and rice.  Farmers prefer to use their own seeds due to the high demand and supply gap.


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Day 16 - (10 May 2024)

Polity

Q.1 When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by- (CSE 2015)

(a) A simple majority of members present and voting
(b) Three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(c) Two-thirds majority of the Houses
(d) Absolute majority of the Houses

Solution: (a)

  • Article 108 of the Indian Constitution of India provides for Joint sitting of both the Houses in case of a deadlock. A bill has to be passed by the simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting in a joint sitting.
  • The provision regarding the joint sitting has been invoked only thrice, in:
    • Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1960.
    • Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1977.
    • Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002.

Q.2 Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India? (CSE 2015)

(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India

Solution: (d)

  • The Supreme Court of India is called the custodian and the guardian of the Constitution in India.

Q.3 Consider the following statements: (CSE 2015)

  1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister
  2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (d)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The executive power of the Union is vested in the President, and is exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio chairman of the Civil Services Board and the Cabinet Secretariat, also the head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India.

Q.4 The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to- (CSE 2015)

(a) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) Determine the boundaries between States
(c) Determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) Protect the interests of all the border States

Solution: (a)

  • The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
  • The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

Q.5 With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (CSE 2015)

  1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of the Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
  2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
  3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (c)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 112 to the Indian Constitution defines the term ‘Financial Statement‘ also referred to as the Union Budget. The responsibility of the budget is given to the Budget Division of the Department of Economic Affairs in the Finance Ministry.
  • Statement 2 is correct. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. Public Account of India includes provident fund deposits, savings bank deposits, judicial deposits, departmental deposits, remittances etc.
  • This account is operated by executive action and does not need parliamentary appropriation.

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Day 17 - (11 May 2024)

Geography

Q.1 Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea? (CSE 2015)

(a) Syria
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Israel 

Solution: (b)

The map is self-explanatory.

West Asia | MAP | UPSC

Q.2 Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status?

  1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
  2. Rajasthani Dal-Bati-Churma
  3. Tirupati Laddu

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (c)

Only Banaras brocades, sarees, and Tirupati Laddu have ‘Geographical Indication’ status.


Q.3 In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclones do not originate. What is the reason? (CSE 2015)

(a) Sea surface temperatures are low
(b) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
(c) Coriolis force is too weak
(d) Absence of land in those regions

Solution: (b)

  • The Intertropical Convergence Zone shifts toward the north in northern summer and toward the south in the southern summer staying usually at or north of the equator.
  • The tropospheric vertical wind shear is too strong and there is typically no ITCZ over the ocean.
Intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) | UPSC

Q.4 Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State? (CSE 2015)

(a) Assam and Rajasthan
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
(c) Assam and Gujarat
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

Solution: (d)

  • Arunachal Pradesh is the easternmost state of India because the easternmost longitude 97°25’E lies there, and Gujarat is the westernmost state of India because westernmost longitude 68°7’E lies there.
The easternmost longitude of India is ______.97 25' E77 6' E82 32' E68 7' E | India MAP

Q.5 The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to- (CSE 2015)

(a) Central Asia
(b) Middle East
(c) South East Asia
(d) Central Africa

Solution: (b)

  • Golan Heights is a strategic plateau area located in the Levant region of Syria that Israel captured in the 1967 Six-Day War.
  • Two-thirds of the western region is currently under Israel, whereas Syria controls one-third of the eastern region.
Israel tightens its grip on the Golan Heights

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Day 18 - (13 May 2024)

Economy

Q.1 When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen? (CSE 2015)

(a) India’s GDP growth rate increases drastically.
(b) Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more capital into our country.
(c) Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates.
(d) It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking system. 

Solution: (c)

  • Statutory Liquidity Ratio is the minimum percentage of deposits or Net Demand and Time Liabilities that a commercial bank must keep with itself in the form of liquid assets such as cash, gold, or government securities.
  • The RBI raises the SLR as inflation rises to control bank credit and decreases during a recession to promote bank credit. Reduction in SLR frees up liquidity which means more lending.

Q.2 In India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the- (CSE 2015)

(a) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
(b) Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States
(c) Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937
(d) Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food Products Order, 1973

Solution: (b)

  • Agricultural Produce Market Committees are marketing boards set up by state governments, because agricultural marketing is a state subject to eliminate farmer exploitation by intermediaries.

Q.3 Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’? (CSE 2015)

(a) The Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Department of Economic Affairs
(c) The Labour Bureau
(d) The Department of Personnel and Training

Solution: (c)

  • CPI - IW quantifies changes in the pricing of a fixed basket of products and services used by Industrial Workers over time.
  • It is based on seven economic sectors like industries, mines, plantations, motor transport, port, railways, and energy generation and distribution.
  • The Labour Bureau compiles this list which functions under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Q.4 Convertibility of rupee implies- (CSE 2015)

(a) Being able to convert rupee notes into gold.
(b) Allowing the value of the rupee to be fixed by market forces.
(c) Freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa.
(d) Developing an international market for currencies in India.

Solution: (c)

  • Convertibility of the rupee denotes free conversion of the rupee to other currencies and vice versa.
  • Indian currency is fully convertible in the Current Account and partially convertible in the Capital Account.

Q.5 Which one of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically? (CSE 2015)

(a) The Asian Development Bank
(b) The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(c) The US Federal Reserve Bank
(d) The World Bank

Solution: (d)

  • The Global Economic Prospects is released by the World Bank twice a year, which analyses key global macroeconomic developments and their impact on member countries.

UPSC Previous Year Questions | PYQs | General Studies | GS | CSAT | UPSCprep.com

Day 19 - (14 May 2024)

Polity

Q.1 Consider the following statements: (CSE 2015)

  1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
  2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (d)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 171 of the Constitution says that the size of the State Legislative Council cannot be more than one-third of the membership of the State Legislative Assembly. But the size of the legislative council cannot be less than 40 members either.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The legislative council is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. The Chairman is elected by the members from amongst itself.

Q.2 The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following? (CSE 2015)

  1. People’s participation in development.
  2. Political accountability
  3. Democratic decentralization
  4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (c)

  • The fundamental objective of the Panchayati Raj system ensures people’s participation in democratic decentralization and development. It does not lead to political accountability and financial mobilization is not the objective of Panchayati Raj.

Q.3 To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the- (CSE 2015)

(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties

Solution: (d)

  • The idea of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the Russian constitution and finds place in Indian Constitution under Article 51A in Part IV-A.
  • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India is an important part of fundamental duties.

Q.4 The ideal of Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its- (CSE 2015)

(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule

Solution: (b)

  • Articles 38 and 39 are based on the principles of distributive justice.
  • This reflects the idea of a welfare state in which the state plays an important role in the economic and social progress of the citizens.

Q.5 Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy: (CSE 2015)

  1. The Principles spell out the socio economic democracy in the country.
  2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct. Directive Principles are aimed at Socio-Economic democracy because they have comprehensive economic, social, and political programs that seek to establish socio-economic democracy in the country. 
  • Statement 2 is correct. Though non-justiciable, the Directive Principles help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.

UPSC Previous Year Questions | PYQs | General Studies | GS | CSAT | UPSCprep.com

Day 20 - (15 May 2024)

History

Q.1 Kalamkari painting refers to- (CSE 2015)

(a) A hand-painted cotton textile in South India.
(b) A handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North-East India
(c) A block-painted woolen cloth in Western Himalayan region of India.
(d) A hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India

Solution: (a)

  • Kalamkari painting is a word derived from the Persian language meaning a textile art involving drawing, painting and printing on cotton cloth. Main areas include Kalahasti and Machilipatnam in Andhra Pradesh.

Q.2 With reference to the art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest? (CSE 2015)

(a) Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar.
(b) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli.
(c) Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram.
(d) Varaha Image at Udayagiri.

Solution: (b)

  • Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar was built in the 11th century by Somvanshi king Jajati Keshari. 
  • Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli or Dhaulagiri is dated by historians to the third century BCE (272-231 B.C).
  • Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram were built during the 7th century under the patronage of Pallava Kings.
  • Varaha Image at Udayagiri belongs to the Gupta-period i.e. 4th-6th century CE.

Q.3 Who of the following was/were economic critic/ critics of colonialism in India? (CSE 2015)

  1. Dadabhai Naoroji
  2. G. Subramania Iyer
  3. R. C. Dutt

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

 Solution: (d)

  • Dadabhai Naoroji, G. Subramania Iyer, and R. C. Dutt - were notable economic critics of colonialism in India.
  • Dadabhai Naoroji wrote on the economic exploitation of India by the British and was a strong advocate for economic reforms.
  • G. Subramania Iyer criticized the economic policies of the British Raj and advocated for self-sufficiency and industrial development in India.
  • R. C. Dutt extensively analyzed the economic impact of British colonialism on India in his book "The Economic History of India."

Q.4 With reference to Rowlat Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct? (CSE 2015)

  1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’.
  2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to Utilize the Home Rule League.
  3. Demonstrations against the arrival of the Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (b)

  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the 'Sedition Committee'. Mahatma Gandhi tried to use the Home Rule League during the Rowlatt Satyagraha. 
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The demonstrations against the Simon Commission did not coincide with the Rowlatt Satyagraha.

Q.5 With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements: (CSE 2015)

  1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
  2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of the proletariat. 
  3. It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Solution: (d)

  • All statements are incorrect. The Congress Socialist Party did not advocate the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes, it did not want to establish the dictatorship of the proletariat and neither did it advocate separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.


Day 21 - (16 May 2024)

Geography

Q.1 What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current- (CSE 2015)

(a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis
(b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents
(c) Difference in salinity of water
(d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator

Solution: (b)

  • Strong westward trade winds and rotation of Earth results in westward surface flow in the form of equatorial current, in most of the tropical Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. The equatorial counter currents are driven by convergence of two equatorial currents in the northern and southern parts of the equator.

Q.2 Consider the following pairs : (CSE 2015)

  Place of Pilgrimage Location

  1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills
  2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
  3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (a)

  • Srisailam is the shrine dedicated to Lord Mallikarjuna on the top of Nallamala Hills in Andhra Pradesh.
  • Omkareshwar is located on Mandhata hills in Madhya Pradesh where the River Narmada flows in the form of an Om.
  • Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state while Pushkar lies in Ajmer.

Q.3 Consider the following rivers: (CSE 2015)

  1. Vamsadhara
  2. Indravati
  3. Pranahita
  4. Pennar

Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: (d)

  • The Godavari River rises from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district and its left bank tributaries include Wainganga, Wardha, Dharna, Penganga, Pranahita, Pench, Kanhan, Sabari, Indravati etc. The right bank tributaries include Manjra, Peddavagu, Pravara, Mula, Maner etc.
  • Vamsadhara is an east-flowing river in Odisha and Pennar originates from Chikkaballapura district of Karnataka. 

Q.4 Consider the following pairs : (CSE 2015)

  Medieval Indian State Present Region

  1. Champaka : Central India
  2. Durgara : Jammu
  3. Kuluta : Malabar

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Solution: (b)

  • Only 1 pair is correctly matched. Champaka is in Chamba located in Himachal Pradesh while Kuluta is in Kullu mountains.

Q.5 Consider the following statements: (CSE 2015)

  1. The winds which blow between 30°N and 60°S latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies.
  2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Westerlies are winds flowing from the west towards the East between the 30°N-60°N and 30°S-60°S degrees latitude.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The moist air masses causing winter rains in the North-Western region of India are a part of Western disturbances coming from the Mediterranean sea.
Geography NCERT | Winds | UPSC

Day 22 - (17 May 2024)

Economy

Q.1 The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of- (CSE 2015)

(a) Labor-augmenting technological progress
(b) Capital-augmenting technological progress
(c) Capital-reducing technological progress
(d) None of the above

Solution: (b)

  • Capital-augmenting technological progress involves use of technology that increases the productivity of capital inputs.
  • Substitution of steel can be seen as the substitution of a lesser machine by a better machine which is a capital-augmenting technological progress.

Q.2 Basel-III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel-III’, often seen in the news, seeks to- (CSE 2015)

(a) Develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity.

(b) Improve the banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management.

(c) Reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a heavier burden on developed countries.

(d) Transfer technology from developed countries to poor countries to enable them to replace the use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with harmless chemicals.

Solution: (b)

  • Basel norms or Basel accords are the international banking regulations issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision.
  • It seeks to coordinate banking regulations globally to strengthen the international banking and financial system.

Q.3 Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana’ has been launched for- (CSE 2015)

(a) Providing housing loans to poor people at cheaper interest rates.
(b) Promoting women’s Self-Help Groups in backward areas.
(c) Promoting financial inclusion in the country.
(d) Providing financial help to the marginalized communities.

Solution: (c)

  • Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana was started as a National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services like banking, savings accounts, remittances, deposit account, credit, insurance and pension in an affordable manner.

Q.4 The problem of International liquidity is related to the non-availability of- (CSE 2015)

(a) Goods and services
(b) Gold and silver
(c) Dollars and other hard currencies
(d) Exportable surplus

Solution: (c)

  • International liquidity involves settling of imbalances in the international payment system which arise out of international trade in goods and services due to capital movement.
  • As Dollar is the prime international currency dominating across the world in forex, non-availability of dollar results in problems related with international liquidity. 

Q.5 There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit? (CSE 2015)

  1. Reducing revenue expenditure
  2. Introducing new welfare schemes
  3. Rationalizing subsidies
  4. Expanding industries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (a)

  • A budget deficit happens when expenditure surpasses revenue. Reduction in revenue expenditure and rationalizing subsidies can help decrease deficit while new welfare schemes and expansion of industries results in increasing deficit.

Day 23 - (18 May 2024)

Environment

Q.1 With reference to an organization known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (CSE 2015)

  1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
  2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization.
  3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (c)

  • Statements 1 and 3 are correct. BirdLife International is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations with aim of conserving birds, their habitats, and global biodiversity. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Biodiversity hotspots are regions with high species richness and a high degree of endemism and these are the regions “where exceptional concentrations of endemic species are undergoing an exceptional loss of habitat”. The concept of biodiversity hotspots was developed by Norman Myers.

Q.2 With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct? (CSE 2015)

  1. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
  2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c)

  • Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited is a Public Limited Government company established in 1987 and is now a Mini Ratna (Category – I).
  • It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and is notified as a “Public Financial Institution” under section 4 ‘A’ of the Companies Act, 1956 and registered as a Non-Banking Financial Company with the Reserve Bank of India.

Q.3 Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances? (CSE 2015)

(a) Bretton Woods Conference
(b) Montreal Protocol
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(d) Nagoya Protocol

Solution: (b)

  • Montreal Protocol is a multilateral agreement to address the depleting ozone layer. The protocol seeks to regulate the production, consumption, and emission of such substances that are responsible for ozone depletion in the stratosphere.

Q.4 Which of the following statements regarding “Green Climate Fund” is/are correct? (CSE 2015)

  1. It is intended to assist developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
  2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct. The Green Climate Fund was established in 2010 as a part of the UNFCCC’s financial framework to channel funds from richer nations to developing countries. The main aim was to help them reduce climate change and adapt to its effects.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change accepted the Green Climate Fund as a financial mechanism in CoP 16.

Q.5 BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the- (CSE 2015)

(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme
(d) World Bank

Solution: (d)

  • The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes is a multilateral facility supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank.
  • The main aim is to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, deforestation and forest degradation and promote sustainable agriculture.

Day 24 - (20 May 2024)

Economy

Q.1 With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? (CSE 2015)

  1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
  2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct. The 14th Finance Commission has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent. 
  • Statement 2 is correct. The commission made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants targeted for development of priority sectors like health, education etc.

Q.2 A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following? (CSE 2015)

  1. Slowing economic growth rate.
  2. Less equitable distribution of national income.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct. When tax collection growth falls behind GDP growth, the tax-to-GDP ratio falls. This slows down economic expansion, income and output growth.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The tax-GDP ratio does not directly indicate income equality or inequality trends because equity depends on fiscal factors like subsidies, transfers etc.

Q.3 In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight? (CSE 2015)

(a) Coal production
(b) Electricity generation
(c) Fertilizer production
(d) Steel production

Solution: (b)

  • The Eight Core Industries index reflects performance of major sectors in the Indian economy. Their weights are:
    • Electricity generation – highest weight of 19.85%
    • Steel production – 17.92% weight
    • Cement production – 11.33% weight
    • Coal production – 10.33% weight
    • Refinery Products – 28.04% weight
    • Crude Oil – 8.98 % weight
    • Natural Gas – 6.88% weight
    • Fertilizers – 6.67% weight

Q.4 The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the- (CSE 2015)

(a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
(b) Commission for ‘Agricultural Costs and Prices.
(c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture.
(d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee

Solution: (a)

  • Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by the Prime Minister, gives final approval on the FRP of sugarcane based on the CACP’s recommendations.

Q.5 With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements: (CSE 2015)

  1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade.
  2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has decreased in the last decade and there were fluctuations both upward and downward. 
  • Statement 2 is correct. The Gross Domestic Product and nominal GDP of India at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade.

Day 25 - (21 May 2024)

Economy

Q.1 The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the- (CSE 2015)

(a) Human Rights Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Planning Commission

Solution: (d)

  • Human Rights Commission is an independent statutory body, the Finance Commission is a constitutional body deciding tax devolution between center and states and the Law Commission is an executive body responsible for legal reform in India and all three of them were no replaced by NITI Aayog.
  • Planning Commission was an executive body which formulated India’s 5-year plans and policy direction since 1950. In 2015, it was dissolved and replaced by the NITI Aayog to provide strategic policy advice instead of centralized planning.

Q.2 With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following. (CSE 2015)

  1. Bank rate
  2. Open market operations
  3. Public debt
  4. Public revenue

Which of the above is/are component/ components of Monetary Policy?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: (c)

  • Bank Rate is the interest rate charged by the central bank i.e RBI on lending to commercial banks. It is a direct monetary policy tool that allows the RBI to expand or contract money supply and liquidity making it a component of monetary policy.
  • Under Open Market Operations, RBI buys/sells government securities in the open market to inject or suck out rupee liquidity. It is an indirect tool to manage money supply as per monetary policy.
  • Public Debt involves fiscal management of domestic and foreign borrowing of the government which is managed by the Finance Ministry/Department of Economic Affairs through debt issuance. Thus it is not an instrument of monetary policy.
  • Public Revenue involves government income through taxes and non-tax receipts as part of fiscal policy and not monetary policy.

Q.3 Which one of the following best describes the main objective of ‘Seed Village Concept’? (CSE 2015)

(a) Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm seeds and discouraging them to buy the seeds from others.

(b) Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost.

(c) Earmarking some villages exclusively for the production of certified seeds.

(d) Identifying entrepreneurs in the villages and providing them technology and finance to set up seed companies.

Solution: (b)

  • Seed village concept involves the farmers for training in quality seed production to make available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost. It builds skilled capacity in local seed production through farmers training.

Q.4 With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? (CSE 2015)

(a) Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only.

(b) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling inflation.

(c) Decreased money circulation helps in controlling inflation.

(d) Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation

Solution: (c)

  • Decreased money circulation helps in controlling inflation because tight money supply through reduced government spending and credit creates less liquidity for consumers to demand goods which controls price rise.

Q.5 Consider the following statements. (CSE 2015)

  1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996—97 to provide loan assistance to poor farmers.
  2. The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974—75 for the development of water-use efficiency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched in 1996-1997 to accelerate implementation of large irrigation projects that have been delayed due to finance and other constraints.
  • Statement 2 is correct.  The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974-1975 to improve water use efficiency through upgrading and modernizing irrigation infrastructure in command areas.


Day 26 - (22 May 2024)

Environment

Q.1 Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity? (CSE 2015)

(a) Bhitarkanika National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
(d) Sultanpur National Park

Solution: (b)

  • Loktak Lake in the Keibul Lamjao National Park is the world’s only floating national park providing natural habitat for the brow-antlered deer or the Sangai (the state animal of Manipur).
  • The national park has scattered floating decomposed plant materials locally called ‘phumdis’ (floating mats of soil and vegetation).

Q.2 With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct? (CSE 2015)

  1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
  2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
  3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.

Select the correct answer from the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (b)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. IUCN is composed of both government and civil society organizations, formed as a membership union, with members including States, non-governmental organizations, indigenous peoples’ organizations, experts, government agencies, etc.
  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.

Q.3 Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India? (CSE 2015)

(a) Saltwater crocodile
(b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin
(d) Gharial

Solution: (c)

  • The Ganges River Dolphin or ‘Susu,’ is the National Aquatic animal of India found only in freshwater.
  • They are endemic to the river Ganga forming the apex of the aquatic food chain.

Q.4 With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (CSE 2015)

  1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
  2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
  3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Solution: (c)

  • Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Dugong is a herbivorous marine animal that is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. In India, they are seen in the Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Palk Bay, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, but not along the entire coastline.

Q.5 Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest? (CSE 2015)

(a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
(b) South-West Bengal
(c) Southern Saurashtra
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Solution: (d)

  • Moist deciduous forests are found in the Middle Andamans while North Andaman is characterized by the wet evergreen type.
  • Epiphytic vegetation is found in South Andaman forests.
  • Mangroves are scattered along the entire coast.

Day 27 - (23 May 2024)

Science and Technology

Q.1 What can be the impact of excessive/ inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture?(CSE 2015)

  1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
  2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place.
  3. Leaching of nitrate to the groundwater can occur.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (c)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture does not lead to proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil.
  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct. It increases the acidity of soil and leaching of nitrate to the groundwater can occur.

Q.2 With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct? (CSE 2015)

  1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction.
  2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete.
  3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Solution: (a)

  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) has focused on new construction technologies such as using environmentally friendly fly ash bricks.
    • Many state governments have released their Fly ash utilisation policies like Maharashtra.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. Fly ash is made up of calcium silicates, calcium aluminate and calcium aluminoferrite.

Q.3 With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (CSE 2015)

  1. It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields.
  2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a meter from each other.
  3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (c)

  • Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Near Field Communication Technology is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields. It can use encryption when sending sensitive information.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. NFC-enabled devices should be physically touching the device or be within a few centimetres from each other for data transfer to occur.

Q.4 In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used? (CSE 2015)

  1. Assessment of crop productivity
  2. Locating groundwater resources
  3. Mineral exploration
  4. Telecommunications
  5. Traffic studies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Solution: (a)

  • Indian Remote Sensing satellites are used for assessment of crop productivity, locating groundwater resources and mineral exploration. They can not be used for telecommunications and traffic studies.

Q.5 With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements: (CSE 2015)

  1. The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets is initiated by a fungal inoculum.
  2. Ammonia and water vapor are the only end products in this decomposition which are released into the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (d)

  • Both statements are incorrect. The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets of the Indian Railways is not initiated by a fungal inoculum but a bacterial consortium is used.
  • The end products are methane, carbon dioxide, ammonia and water vapor.

Day 28 - (24 May 2024)

Science and Technology

Q.1 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF)? (CSE 2015)

  1. NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government
  2. NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India’s premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct. National Innovation Foundation is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Innovation Foundation is not a collaboration with foreign institutions to strengthen scientific research. It is focused on promoting grassroots innovation and providing support to innovators at the grassroots level in India.

Q.2 In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news: (CSE 2015)

  1. It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice.
  2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter.
  3. It is buried deep in the ice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (b)

  • All statements are correct. The IceCube Neutrino Observatory is a neutrino observatory constructed at the Amundsen–Scott South Pole Station in Antarctica recognized as a CERN experiment (RE10) project. Its thousands of sensors are located under the Antarctic ice in an area spanning over a cubic kilometer.

Q.3 The term ‘IndARC’, sometimes seen in the news, is the name of- (CSE 2015)

(a) An indigenously developed radar system inducted into Indian Defense

(b) India’s satellite to provide services to the countries of Indian Ocean Rim

(c) A scientific establishment set up by India in Antarctic region

(d) India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region

Solution: (d)

  • IndARC` or the "Indian Arctic Research Centre." is a scientific establishment set up by India in the Antarctic region.
  • It is an Indian research station in Antarctica to conduct scientific research and studies in various disciplines such as climate change, geology, atmospheric sciences, polar biology and other related fields.

Q.4 H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (CSE 2015)

(a) AIDS
(b) Bird flu
(c) Dengue
(d) Swine flu

Solution: (d)

  • Influenza A virus subtype H1N1 is a subtype of influenza A virus which causes Swine flu and is called swine flu because it’s similar to a flu virus that affects pigs/swine.

Q.5 With reference to “fuel cells” in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements: (CSE 2015)

  1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
  2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
  3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
  • Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Fuel cells can be used for both large-scale purposes like powering buildings, as well as small devices like laptop computers. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Direct Current (DC), not Alternating Current (AC).

Day 29 - (25 May 2024)

Environment

Q.1 In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes, these bridges become stronger. These unique ‘living root bridges’ are found in- (CSE 2015)

(a) Meghalaya
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Tamil Nadu

Solution: (a)

  • The Indian rubber trees have entwined roots which form bridges by knitting tree roots together. The Khasi and Jaintia people of Rewai village in Meghalaya make the living tree root bridges. 

Q.2 Consider the following States: (CSE 2015)

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Mizoram

In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (c)

  • The tropical wet evergreen forest in India is usually found in areas with more than 200 cm of rainfall and temperature of 15-30 degrees celsius. They have sparse undergrowth, scarce presence of litter and therefore are not found in Himachal Pradesh.

Q.3 Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’? (CSE 2015)

(a) A community of’ organisms interacting with one another

(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms

(c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live

(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area

Solution: (c)

  • Ecosystem involves an interaction of all living and nonliving organisms with the surrounding environment. 

Q.4 The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the- (CSE 2015)

(a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
(b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Solution: (c)

  • The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Q.5 In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species? (CSE 2015)

(a) Tropical moist deciduous forest
(b) Tropical rainforest
(c) Tropical thorn scrub forest
(d) Temperate forest with grasslands

Solution: (a)

  • Deciduous vegetation found in deciduous forest, also known as “Monsoon” forests, has primarily broad-leaved trees that shed all their leaves during one season.
  • Teak is the most dominant species of tropical deciduous forests and is spread over regions with rainfall between 70-200 cm. 

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