UPSC Previous Year Questions (GS)

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Day 1 - (23 April 2024)

Environment

Q.1 If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record', what does it imply?
(2014)

(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference

(b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilometers from the edge of the wetland.

(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed.

(d) It is given the status of World Heritage Site’

Solution: (a)

• The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of pollution, technological developments or other human interferences. 
• The Convention on Wetlands, called the Ramsar Convention, is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
• The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975.

Q.2 What is the significance of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as 'Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative'?   (2014)

1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.
3. There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (b)

• Statement 1 is correct. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
• Statement 2 is correct. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this as it results in efficient water use by water-saving strategy.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. This method promotes organic farming but there is reduced and efficient use of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers rather than total elimination of chemical/inorganic fertilizers.
• Statement 4 is correct. The method takes less space due to the reduced plant population, which gives ample space for intercropping. 

Q.3  With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements : (2014)

1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (c)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Bombay Natural History Society is one of the largest non-governmental organizations in India engaged in conservation and biodiversity research.
• Statement 2 is correct. Its mission includes conservation of nature, primarily biological diversity through action based on research, education, and public awareness.
• Statement 3 is correct. It also organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public and supports research efforts through grants and publishes the Journal of the Bombay Natural History Society.

Q.4  With reference to ’Global Environment Facility', which of the following statements is/are correct? 2014

(a) It serves as a financial mechanism for ’Convention on Biological Diversity' and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’.

(b) lt undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level.

(c) lt is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment.

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Solution: (a)

• Statement 1 is correct. The Global Environment Facility serves as the financial mechanism for the `Convention on Biological Diversity` and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
• Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. It does not undertake scientific research on environmental issues at the global level. It is not an agency under OECD but is an independent international financial organization.

Q.5 With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to the Ramsar Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both
(d) None

Solution: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Wetlands International is a global organization aimed at sustaining and restoring wetlands and their resources. It is an independent, not-for-profit, global organization, supported by government and NGO membership from around the world.
• Statement 2 is correct. Wetlands International works in areas like research, advocacy with governments, community-based field projects, international policy etc.

Day 2 - (24 April 2024)

History

Q.6 The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until- (2014)

(a) the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended.

(b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911.

(c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement.

(d) The Partition of India in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan.

Solution: (b)

• The partition of Bengal was annulled in 1911 at the Royal Durbar in Delhi when King George V visited India during Viceroy Lord Hardinge.
• It was done in response to the Swadeshi movement and other activities of the freedom fighters.

Q.7 With reference to India's culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?
(2014)

(a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India.

(b) It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in the southern part of the Coromandel area.

(c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar.

(d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India.

Solution: (d)

• Kalaripayattu is a martial art that originated in Kerala during the 3rd century BC to the 2nd century AD.
• 'Kalari' is a Malayalam word meaning a kind of gymnasium or a battlefield. The word Kalari first appears in Tamil Sangam literature.

Q.8 The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a-  (2014)

(a) Revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco.

(b) Nationalist organization operating from Singapore.

(c) Militant organization with headquarters at Berlin.

(d) Communist movement for India's freedom with headquarters at Tashkent.

Solution: (a)

• The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary organization, initially named the Pacific Coast Hindustan Association.
• It was formed in July 1913 in the United States by Lala Har Dayal, Baba Wasakha Singh Dadehar, Baba Jawala Singh, Santokh Singh and Sohan Singh Bhakna.
• The Ghadar Party was headquartered at San Francisco, USA.

Q.9 What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)? 

1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States.
2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown.
3. To regulate East lndia Company's trade with India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (2014)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (a)

• Statement 1 is correct. Any intention to annex Indian States was done away with to avoid further alienation of Indians.
• Statement 2 is correct. Indian territories of Britain were to be governed in the name of the British Queen and the post of Court of Directors and the Board of Control were scrapped.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The proclamation liquidated East lndia Company and not regulated its trade with India.

Q.10 Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was- (2014)

(a) the mosque for the use of the Royal Family.

(b) Akbar’s private prayer chamber.

(c) The hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions,

(d) The room in which the nobles belonging to different religions gathered to discuss religious affairs.

Solution: (c)

• Ibadat Khana or the House of Worship was a meeting house built in 1575 CE by the Mughal emperor Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri.
• It was to gather different religious and spiritual leaders to conduct a discussion and debates on their respective teachings.

Day 3 - (25 April 2024)

Geography

Q.1 Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

1. Continental drift.
2. Glacial cycles

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
(2014)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c)

• Both options are correct.
• Continental drift theory deals with distribution of the oceans and the continents.
  • When Pangaea split into two large continental masses, and when Laurasia and Gondwanaland continued to break into smaller continents, the drift must have moved some flora and fauna from one continent to others which must have influenced the evolution
• Impact on evolution due to Glacial cycles and rise in sea level might have been in the form of extreme cold resulting in extinction of few species.

Q.2 Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ten Degree Channel? (2014)

(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Nicobar and Sumatra
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
(d) Sumatra and Java

Solution: (a)

• As seen in the map, option a is correct.

 Q.3 Consider the following rivers- 

1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri

Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh? (2014)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (b)

• Lohit and Subansiri flows through Arunachal Pradesh.
• The Barak River flows through the states of Manipur, Mizoram and Assam in India and then into Bangladesh where it bifurcates into the Surma and Kushiyara river.

Q.4 The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of- (2014)

(a) Equatorial climate
(b) Mediterranean climate
(c) Monsoon climate
(d) All of the above climates

Solution: (c)

• Seasonal reversal of winds is seen in Monsoon climate as South East trade winds are deflected by coriolis force to their right and enter India as South West monsoon winds.
• Also, when pressure belts reverse during winters, these winds flow as North East Monsoon winds also known as retreating monsoons.
• Equatorial climate is characterized by daily convection currents and evening rainfall and Mediterranean climate is impacted by local factors rather than seasonal.

Q.5 Consider the following pairs:

Hills Region

1. Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast
2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast
3. Mahadeo Hills : Central India
4. Mikir Hills : North-East India

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(2014)

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

Solution: (c)

• Kaimur hills are part of the eastern portion of the Vindhya Range and lie in Madhya Pradesh.
• Cardamom hills or Yela Mala mountain range is part of the southern Western Ghats and hence no along the Coromandel coast.

Day 4 - (26 April 2024)

Polity

Q.1 Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
(2014)

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The Committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions

Solution: (b)

• Estimates Committee is a standing committee of the Parliament with 30 members exclusively from the Lok Sabha.
• Members are elected every year according to proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• No minister can be a member of the estimates committee.

Q.2 Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection ? (2014)

(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule

Solution: (d)

• Anti-defection Law was enacted through the 52nd Amendment Act 1985 as part of the Tenth Schedule with the objective of discouraging defection by imposing penalties. 

Q.3 In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the
(2014)

(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule

Solution: (b)

• The Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV of the Indian constitution has Article 51 which gives directives to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honorable relations between nations.

Q.4 Which of the following is/are the function/ functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(2014)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1  and 2 only
(d) 1 , 2 and 3

Solution: (c)

• Statement 3 is incorrect as it is not the function of cabinet secretariat.
• Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• Functions of the Cabinet Secretariat include preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings, secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees, monitoring implementation of decisions taken by the Cabinet and its Committees, management of major crisis situations in the country, approval for Senior-Level Appointments etc. 

Q.5 Consider the following statements: 

A Constitutional Government is one which

1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority.
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(2014)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b)

• Constitutional Government places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.
• It does not place restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority. 

Day 5 - (27 April 2024)

Economy

Q.1 The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a-
(2014)

(a) tax imposed by the Central Government.
(b) tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government.
(c) tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government
(d) tax imposed and collected by the State Government.

Solution: (d)

• Taxes on toothpaste come under GST which is administered by the State government.
• Sales tax is paid to the sales tax authority in the state from where the goods are moved.

Q.2 What does venture capital mean?
(2014)

(a) A short-term capital provided to industries.
(b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs.
(c) Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses.
(d) Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries.

Solution: (b)

• Entrepreneurs require capital to launch business which is in the form of Venture Capital.
• It is the investment or capital that these entrepreneurs obtain from affluent investors.
• These investments are extremely high-risk high-reward types of investments.

Q.3 The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is-
(2014)

(a) Inclusive growth and poverty reduction.
(b) Inclusive and sustainable growth.
(c) Sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment.
(d) Faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.

Solution: (d)

• The twelfth Five Year Plan focussed on growth which is Faster, Inclusive and Sustainable
• There were 25 Core Monitorable Targets of the 12th Five Year Plan which spanned from 2012 to 2017.

Q.4 With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes /constitute the Current Account? (2014)

1. Balance of trade
2. Foreign assets
3. Balance of invisibles
4. Special Drawing Rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 , 2 and 4

Solution: (c) 

• Current account monitors flow of money from trade of goods and services (import and export).
• This includes revenue from tourism, revenue from stocks, transportation receipts, money received or spent on manufactured goods and raw materials, revenue from specialized services and royalties from patents and copyrights.
• Thus constituents of Current Account with respect to Balance of Payments include Balance of trade and Balance of invisibles, and not Foreign assets and Special Drawing Rights.

Q.5 The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to-
(2014)

(a) Banking operations
(b) Communication networking
(c) Military strategies
(d) Supply and demand of agricultural products

Solution: (a)

• Marginal Standing Facility is the rate at which banks can borrow overnight funds from the RBI in exchange for authorized government securities in situations when interbank liquidity dries up completely and results in volatility.
• The Net Demand and Time Liabilities refers to the aggregate savings account, current account, and fixed deposit balances held by a bank.

Day 6 - (29 April 2024)

Art & Culture

Q.1 Consider the following languages

1. Gujarati
2. Kannada
3. Telugu

Which of the above has/have been declared as 'Classical Language/Languages' by the Government? (2014)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

 Solution: (c)

• There are six ‘Classical’ languages in India, namely Tamil, Telugu, Sanskrit, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia, and they are listed in the 8th Schedule.
• Thus, Gujarati is not a classical language of India.

Q.2 With reference to the cultural history of India, the term 'Panchayatan’ refers to- (2014)

(a) An assembly of village elders
(b) A religious sect
(c) A style of temple construction
(d) An administrative functionary 

Solution: (c)

• Panchayatana is a style of temple architecture where the main shrine is seated on a rectangular plinth along with four subsidiary shrines at the four corners.
• This gives it the name Panchayatana due to a total of 5 shrines.

Q.3 Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy? (2014)

(a) Mimamsa and Vedanta 
(b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika 
(c) Lokayata and Kapalika
(d) Sankhya and Yoga

Solution: (c)

• Six systems of Indian philosophy include Vaisheshika, Nyaya, Samkhya, Yoga, Mimansa and Vedanta.
• These are said to have been founded by sages Konada, Gotama, Kapila, Patanjali, Jaimini and Vyasa respectively. 

Q.4 Consider the following towns of India- 

1. Bhadrachalam
2. Chanderi
3. Kancheepuram
4. Karnal

Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees /fabric? (2014)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Solution: (c)

• Bhadrachalam in Telangana is famous for traditional silk sarees. Chanderi in Madhya Pradesh is famous for traditional Chanderi sarees which have lightweight and delicate embroidery.
• Kancheepuram in Tamil Nadu is famous for rich and intricate Kancheepuram silk sarees.

Q.5 A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their- (2014)

(a) Martial arts in North-East India
(b) Musical tradition in North-West lndia
(c) Classical vocal music in South lndia
(d) Pietra dura tradition in Central India

Solution: (b)

• Manganiyars are a Muslim musician community residing in western Rajasthan’s Jaisalmer and Barmer districts and are also found in Pakistan.
• Their music was supported by wealthy landlords and merchants before Independence, and they performed in languages and dialects like Marwari, Sindhi, Saraiki, Dhatti and Thareli.

Day 7 - (30 April 2024)

International relations

Q.1 With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (2014)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 Solution: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The inaugural BRIC summit took place in Yekaterinburg, Russia on June 16, 2009 when South Africa was not a part of the organization.
• Statement 2 is correct. South Africa was the last country to join BRIC after which it became 'BRICS'.

Q.2 Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as 'Arab Spring’ originally started from- (2014)

(a) Egypt
(b) Lebanon
(c) Syria
(d) Tunisia

Solution: (d)

• The Arab Spring was a pro-democracy uprising in largely Muslim countries, including Tunisia, Morocco, Syria, Libya, Egypt and Bahrain.
• The protests first broke out in Tunisia in late 2010 and spread to other countries.

Q.3 Consider the following countries- (2014)

1. Denmark
2. Japan
3. Russian Federation
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the 'Arctic Council'

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 5

Solution: (d)

• Eight countries have sovereignty over the lands within the Arctic Circle, and these are the member states of the council.
• It includes Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden and the United States.

Q.4 Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’? (2014)

(a) IMF 
(b) UNDP
(c) WEF
(d) World Bank

Solution: (a)

• IMF released its World Economic Outlook 2023 titled- Navigating Global Divergence, which stated that the Indian Economy will grow faster than previously estimated.
• It gives indicators on Global Growth Forecasts and Inflation and Monetary Policy.

Q.5  Consider the following pairs- (2014)

Region in news Country 

1. Chechnya Russian Federation
2. Darfur Mali
3. Swat Valley Iraq

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (a)

• Darfur is a region in western Sudan and Swat Valley is in Pakistan.
• An ancient rock carving of the Buddha was blown up by the Taliban as they overran Pakistan’s Swat valley a decade ago.
• Chechnya is a republic of Russia situated in the North Caucasus of Eastern Europe. Thus only option 1 is correct.

Day 8 - (1 May 2024)

Science & Technology

Q.1 Consider the following techniques / phenomena- (CSE 2014)

1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
3. Gene silencing

Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

Solution: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Budding and grafting is the act of placing a bud or scion into a stem, root, or branch of another stock which does not lead to any genetic modification.

• Statement 2 is correct. Cytoplasmic male sterility is for hybrid breeding to prevent total or partial male sterility in plants, by using specific nuclear and mitochondrial interactions.
• Statement 3 is correct. Gene silencing is done using RNA interference technology to induce transcriptional gene silencing and virus-induced gene silencing.

Q.2 Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of the other three? (CSE 2014)

(a) Crab
(b) Mite
(c) Scorpion
(d) Spider

Solution: (a)

• Mite, Scorpion, and Spider are Arachnids.
• While Crab is a Crustacean.

Q.3 Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change? (CSE 2014)

1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
2. Melting of ice
3. Souring of milk

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Solution: (b)

• Crystallization of sodium chloride and Melting of ice are physical changes as there is no change in chemical composition.
• While souring of milk can be reversed and it is a chemical change.

Q.4  Consider the following statements-  (CSE 2014)

1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (d)

• All statements are correct.
• Maize starch is produced by grinding of softened maize and separation of corn oil seeds, gluten, fibers and final outcome being pure starch.
• Biodiesel fuel can be produced by transesterification of fat or oil triacylglycerols. Corn biodiesel is a mixture of long-chain fatty acid methyl esters (FAMEs).
• The alcohol in alcoholic drinks is ethanol which can be extracted from grains, fruits, or vegetables through fermentation.

 Q.5  In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?  (CSE 2014)

1. Iris scanning
2. Retinal scanning
3. Voice recognition

 Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (d)

• Biometric identification helps identify a person and some examples of biometric security are Voice Recognition, Fingerprint Scanning, Facial Recognition, Iris Recognition and Heart-Rate Sensors.

Day 9 - (2 May 2024)

Environment

Q.1 Consider the following statements: (CSE 2014) 

1. Animal Welfare Board of India was established under the Environment Protection Act, 1980.
2. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
3. The National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Animal Welfare Board has been established under Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Acts 1960 and not the Environment Protection Act, 1980.
• Statements 2 & 3 are correct. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change.
• The National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Q.2 With reference to to-Sensitive Zones‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? (CSE 2014)

1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (d)

• Both Statements are incorrect. Eco-sensitive zones are ecologically fragile areas within 10 km around protected areas to act as a buffer, and are notified under the Environment Protection Act, 1980.
• Certain activities like agriculture, horticulture, organic farming, rainwater harvesting, tourism, etc. are permitted in the Eco-sensitive zones.

Q.3 Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’:
(CSE 2014)

1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
3. It is a movement to raise awareness about climate change and the need to save the planet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (c)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Earth Hour is an initiative of the World Wildlife Fund for Nature that began in 2007.
• Statements 2 & 3 are correct. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year. It is based on the idea of refraining from the use of non-essential lighting to save energy symbolically. 
• It is a movement to raise awareness about climate change and the need to save the planet.

Q.4 What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’? (CSE 2014)

1. Prevention of soil runoff.
2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers.
3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table.
4. Regeneration of natural vegetation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Solution: (c)

• Statements 1, 3 & 4 are correct.
• The Integrated Watershed Management Programme is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Rural Development.
• Its objectives include restoration of ecological balance by conserving soil and vegetative cover.
• The outcomes are prevention of soil runoff, regeneration of natural vegetation and rain water harvesting.

Q.5 The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of-
(CSE 2014)

(a) Biosphere reserves
(b) Botanical gardens
(c) National parks
(d) Wildlife sanctuaries

Solution: (a)

• Biosphere reserves help conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life as they protect larger areas of natural habitat. 

Day 10 - (3 May 2024)

History

Q.1 Consider the following statements:  (CSE 2014) 

1. ‘Bijak' is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.
2. The Philosophy of PushtiMarg was propounded by Madhvacharya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?’

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (d)

• Both the statements are incorrect.
• Bijak is a popular compilation of the teachings of Kabir and not of Dadu Dayal. And the philosophy of Pushti Marg (The path of Grace) was propounded by Vallabhacharya while Madhavacharya propounded Dvaita or dualism. 

Q.2 The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the- (CSE 2014)

(a) Attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress.

(b) The attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress.

(c) A Non-Cooperation Movement was launched.

(d) A decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken.

Solution: (b)

• The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress held at Lahore on the banks of Ravi river is significant because the attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress.

Q.3 Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha? (CSE 2014)

1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Solution: (c)

• Avanti can be eliminated as it was not directly related to the life of Buddha.
• Prasenajit, king of Kosala, was Buddha’s contemporary. Also, Kosala and Magadha were linked through matrimonial ties.
• Gandhara is not directly associated with the life of Buddha and received attention only after expansion of Mauryan empire under Ashoka.

Q.4 In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ’Pattakila' were used for- (CSE 2014)

(a) Military officers
(b) Village headmen
(c) Specialists in Vedic rituals 
(d) Chiefs of craft guilds

Solution: (b)

• Mahattara and Pattaklla were designations used for village headmen in medieval India.
• The Mahattara was the superior headman of the village, while the Pattaklla was the subordinate headman. 

Q.5 Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 366 days? (CSE 2014)

(a) 22nd March (or 21st March)
(b) 15th May (or 16th May)
(c) 31st March (or 30th March)
(d) 21st April (or 20th April)

Solution: (a)

• Chaitra 1 is the first day of the Hindu lunar calendar, based on the Saka era.
• The Saka era started in 78 AD and corresponds to the year when the Saka dynasty ruled present-day India.
• Thus, the first day of Hindu lunar calendar, i.e., Chaitra 1 corresponds to 22 March of the Gregorian calendar.

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